Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 5 - Time 2 Hours

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Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Electrical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
Statements: All apartments are huts. No hut is a building. All buildings are cottages.
Conclusions --

I. No cottage is an apartment
II. Some cottages are apartments
- If only conclusion I follows.
- If only conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
- If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
- If both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
Correct

L No cottage is apartrnent. (true)
II. Some cottages are apartments' (true)

Incorrect

L No cottage is apartrnent. (true)
II. Some cottages are apartments' (true)
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Conclusions--

I. No apartment is a cottage.
il. Some buildings being apartments is a
- If only conclusion I follows.
- If only conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
- If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
- If both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
Correct

I. No apartmentris a cottage. (true)
II. Some buildings being apartments is a possibility(faIse)

Incorrect

I. No apartmentris a cottage. (true)
II. Some buildings being apartments is a possibility(faIse)
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Conclusions--

I. Some cottages being apartments is a possibility.
II. No cottage is a hut.
- If only conclusion I follows.
- If only conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
- If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
- If both conclusion I and conclusion II follows.
Correct

I. Some cottages being apartments is a possibility.(false)
II No cottage is a hut. (false)

Incorrect

I. Some cottages being apartments is a possibility.(false)
II No cottage is a hut. (false)
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
"One of the main reasons behind the lack of applicants for teachers' training/degree programmes is that teachers have not experienced any improvement in working conditions and their salaries have not kept pace with salaries in other professions."

Which of the following can be inf'erred from the given paragraph?
- Very tough entrance exam is also one of the reasons behind plunging number of applicants for teachers' training programmes.
- In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers.
- Training programmes for other professions are also as good as teachers' training programmes.
- Number of applicants for teachers' training programmes will improve if the salaries in other professions are reduced.
- No direct relationship can be established between the work conditions of a particular profession and preference for it amongst the qualified candidates.
Correct

From the given paragraph, the impact can be drawn that In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers'.

Incorrect

From the given paragraph, the impact can be drawn that In the years to come, the schools would face a crunch in terms of availability of qualified teachers'.
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
Get more involved in our real world. Food inflation is a fantastic way to teach our children mathematics. Try having your child plot a graph of how incomes have grown in India for different jobs between, say, 1950 and today (engineer, doctor, maid, driver). Have them plot how costs have grown in the same period; it will be a fun exercise By the time they finish the exercise, not only will your children learn a lot, but likely you will realize too that while our incomes have zoomed 300 times in this period,salaries of maids have probably gone up only 50 times,and costs have gone up 100 times. Your maid still has a seven-day week, with no paid vacation or casual leaves And realizing just how lucky we are is often the first step towards serious philanthropy.

All the following can be inferred from the above except for one :-
- Real world problems are a good way to understand other subjects as well as have appreciation for the real world problem.
- Food inflation has affected very differently different professionals over the Years
- Though there are huge salary differences, for all the jobs/professions the increase has at least not been less than the rate of inflation over a Ionger period of time
- When we realize that we have been lucky, we tend to think about philanthropy and helping those who have not been so lucky.
- Not only children, even the parents and other adults need to understand and sensitive themselves about the inequality.
Correct

From the given information, the statement cannot be inferred that Though there are huge salary differences, for all the jobs/professions the increase has at least not been less than the rate of inflation over a longer period of time.

Incorrect

From the given information, the statement cannot be inferred that Though there are huge salary differences, for all the jobs/professions the increase has at least not been less than the rate of inflation over a longer period of time.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
If 'A x B' means 'A is father of B"
If 'A + B' means 'A is wife of B:.
If 'A $\div$ B' means A is daughter oF B'.
If 'A - B' means 'A is son of B'.
How is L related to Q in the expression'L $\div$ M x O -P $\div$ Q'?
- Granddaughter
- Niece
- Daughter-in-law
- Daughter
- Cannot be determined
Correct

it is clear that L is granddaughter of Q.

Incorrect

it is clear that L is granddaughter of Q.
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
What will come in the place of the question mark, to establish that Q is the nephew of T in the expression 'Q ? R $\div$ S x T'?
- +
- ×
- -
- ÷
- Either -or÷
Correct

it is clear that Q is the nephew of T.

Incorrect

it is clear that Q is the nephew of T.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
Which of the following relations are true based upon the relations given in the equation : 'A -B x C + D -E'?
- C is mother of A
- E is wife of B
- D is brother of A
- E is mother-in-Iaw of C
- None is true
Correct

none is true.

Incorrect

none is true.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions 'I > L' as well as 'M > K' definitely true?

I>J $\geq$ K?L $\leq$ N=M
- >
- <
- ≤
- =
- Either <or≤
Correct

On putting sign (=) in place of question mark (?) I > j $\geq$ K =L $\leq$ N=M

MEANS I > L
and M $\geq$ K

Incorrect

On putting sign (=) in place of question mark (?) I > j $\geq$ K =L $\leq$ N=M

MEANS I > L
and M $\geq$ K
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that 'S > P' definitely holds true but 'S = P' does not hold true?

P_Q_R _S
- ≥,>,≥
- ≤,=,≤
- >,<,<
- <,≤,≤
- None of these
Correct

On putting sign [<, $\leq$ , $\leq$ ) in place of blank spaces P $\leq$ Q $\leq$ R $\leq$ S

MEANS S>P and S =P

Incorrect

On putting sign [<, $\leq$ , $\leq$ ) in place of blank spaces P $\leq$ Q $\leq$ R $\leq$ S

MEANS S>P and S =P
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
A series is established if one of the Five Answer Figures is placed at the "question-marked space". Question Figures form a series if they change from left to right according to some rule. The number of the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the five figures i.e, four Problem Figures and one Answer Figure placed in the question-marked space should be considered as following the series.
Study the following question.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code?
- EPMT
- TPME
- EMPT
- CKNR
- ETPM
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- 19
- 17
- 13
- 27
- 37
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?

BE GJ LO QT ?
- UX
- VY
- SV
- SV
- RU
- WZ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which has as many letters berween them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?
- None
- one
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: F @ N, NδR, H @ R
Conclusions : I. HδN, II. F#R
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: M # T, T @ K, K$ N
Condusions: I.M#N, II.KδM
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: T%H, H $ W
Conclusions: I. W#T, II. W%T
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: NδK, K#D, D%M
Conclusions: I. MδK, II. D δ N
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: J $ B, B % R, R δF
Conclusions: I.F#B, II.R@J
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word QUICKLY, each of which has as many letters between them in the word {in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement F≥G=H; G> J≥K
Conclusions I.F≥K
II.K<H
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

statement F≥G=H; G > J≥K
Conclusions I. F≥K (False)
II.K<H(True)
Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.

Incorrect

statement F≥G=H; G > J≥K
Conclusions I. F≥K (False)
II.K<H(True)
Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement P < Q = R ≥ T; S ≥ T

Conclusions I .T ≤ Q

II. R > P
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement P < Q = R ≥ S ≥ T
Conclusions I. T ≤ Q (True) II. R > P (True)
Hence, both conclusions are definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement P < Q = R ≥ S ≥ T
Conclusions I. T ≤ Q (True) II. R > P (True)
Hence, both conclusions are definitely true.
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D ; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C
II. F ≥ D
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C (True)II. F ≥ D (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C (True)II. F ≥ D (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E
II. o > U
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E (False)
II. o > U (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E (False)
II. o > U (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P
II. N<K
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P(False)
II. N<K(True)

Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P(False)
II. N<K(True)

Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

What is the position of Q with respect to P ?
- Fifth to the right
- Immediate neighbour
- Second to right
- Third to left
- None of these
Correct

Second to right

Incorrect

Second to right
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
- P, V
- Y, S
- R, V
- Y, P
- R, Y
Correct

R, Y

Incorrect

R, Y
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

How many persons are seated between R and T ?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- None
Correct

Three (P, S, Q)

Incorrect

Three (P, S, Q)
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

If P is related to Q and S is related to T in a certain way, to which of the following would V be related to following the same pattern?
- Y
- P
- R
- S
- X
Correct

Y (Second Person seated second to the right of first Person)

Incorrect

Y (Second Person seated second to the right of first Person)
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the persons who sit second from the left and the person who sits fifth from the right?
- V
- Q
- T
- S
- P
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What is the code for'he'?
- la
- pa
- ro
- ta
- Either la or zo
Correct

he $\rightarrow$ pa

Incorrect

he $\rightarrow$ pa
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What does 'la' stand for?
- is
- train
- waiting
- the
- there
Correct

la $\rightarrow$ there

Incorrect

la $\rightarrow$ there
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

Which of the following represents 'the train station'?
- zo la ma
- fu ji ta
- fu ji zo
- ro zo fu
- Cannot be determined
Correct

the $\rightarrow$ ji, train $\rightarrow$ zo, station $\rightarrow$ fu
Hence, 'the train station' $\rightarrow$ ji zo fu or fu ji zo

Incorrect

the $\rightarrow$ ji, train $\rightarrow$ zo, station $\rightarrow$ fu
Hence, 'the train station' $\rightarrow$ ji zo fu or fu ji zo
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What is the code for'at'?
- ma
- ji
- fu
- ta
- Cannot be determined
Correct

at $\rightarrow$ ma

Incorrect

at $\rightarrow$ ma
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
As proposed in the Union Budget for FY15, four more AIIMS will be set up in the country with current allocation of Rs
500 cr. Which of the following are the states/regions where these institutes will come up?
- West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Purvanchal and Vidharbha
- Arunachal Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Vidharbha
- Sikkim, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Vidharbha
- Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Vidharbha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the proposals made in the Union Budget for the FY15?
- Rs 5000 cr for rehabilitation of displaced Kashmiri migrants
- Allocation of Rs 500 cr for rural electrification
- Sanitation in every household by 2019
- New scheme for skill development called ‘Skill India’ to be launched
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
What will be the initial authorised capital of the proposed BRICS bank?
- USD 100 bn
- USD 200 bn
- USD 300 bn
- USD 500 bn
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The first chair of the Board of Governors of the proposed BRICS bank will be from which of the following countries?
- India
- Brazil
- Russia
- South Africa
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been appointed the Chairman of the Indian Council of Historical Research (ICHR)
recently?
- Y Sudarshan Rao
- Ramachandra Guha
- Udai Prakash Arora
- Ram Narayan Rawat
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
As per the recently released UN Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) report 2014, what portion of the world’s 1.2 billion extremely poor population is residing in India at present?
- half
- one third
- one fourth
- One fifth
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
What is India’s ranking in the recently released ‘Ease of Doing Business’ report by the World Bank?
- 134
- 131
- 112
- 89
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
Which of the following member countries will hold the presidency of the proposed BRICS bank initially for 6 years?
- Brazil
- South Africa
- Russia
- India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
Following the meeting of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the Brazilian President Dilma Rousseff, the two countries
signed three agreements. Which of the following is NOT among them?
- MoU on cooperation in the field of environment
- Implementing arrangement establishing cooperation in augmentation of a Brazilian earth station for receiving and processing data from Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) Satellites
- MoU on cooperation in the field of mobility and consular issues
- MoU on establishing a branch of Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) in Fortaleza
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
Which of the following pairs won the men’s doubles title of the Wimbledon tennis tournament recently?
- Alex Bolt and Andrew Whittington
- Vasek Pospisil and Jack Sock
- Marcelo Demoliner and Purav Raja
- Bob and Mike Bryan
- 5) None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries will host the seventh BRICS summit in 2015?
- Russia
- South Africa
- China
- India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
What amount has been allocated for the Defence Ministry in the Budget for the FY15? There has been an increase of
around 12.5 per cent from the last fiscal.
- Rs 3.20 lakh cr
- Rs 2.82 lakh cr
- Rs 2.29 lakh cr
- Rs 2.03 lakh cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank of India has notified that home loans up to ________in metros and ________in non-metros, given by banks from the proceeds of long-term bonds (of minimum 7 yrs maturity), will qualify as affordable housing loans.
- Rs 45 lakh, Rs 35 lakh
- Rs 50 lakh, Rs 40 lakh
- Rs 55 lakh, Rs 45 lakh
- Rs 60 lakh, Rs 50 lakh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
The market regulator, SEBI, asked Satyam Computers founder B Ramalinga Raju and others to return their unlawful gains of Rs 1,849 cr along with an interest of Rs 1,200 cr and barred them from accessing the capital market for ________, recently.
- 10 years
- 14 years
- 20 years
- life time
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
The 2015 BRICS Summit will be held in Russia in which of the following cities?
- Sochi
- Saint-Petersburg
- Ufa
- Moscow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
Typhoon Rammasun hit which of the following countries, recently, which paralysed the normal life and has claimed at
least 38 lives so far?
- Philippines
- Singapore
- Colombia
- Chile
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
Who won the Golden Boot at the FIFA World Cup held in Brazil recently?
- Arjen Robben
- James Rodriguez
- Thomas Muller
- Lionel Messi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
Who among the following is the goodwill ambassador of the 35th National Games to be held in seven cities in Kerala in
2015?
- Saina Nehwal
- Sachin Tendulkar
- Leander Paes
- Sania Mirza
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Lt General Ajay Kumar Singh has been sworn in as Lt Governor of which of the following Union Territories?
- Puducherry
- Chandigarh
- Andaman & Nicobar
- Lakshadweep
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The Indian women’s cricket team led by Mithali Raj is all set to play a four-day ‘Test’ match with which of the following
teams after a gap of eight long years?
- New Zealand
- Australia
- England
- West Indies
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
The naval exercise INDRA 2014 was conducted between India and which of the following countries recently?
- Japan
- China
- France
- Russia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
Nagoya Protocol will come into force from October this year. This international agreement is related to related to which
of the following issues?
- Access to civilian nuclear technology for all
- Easy access for poor countries to patented life saving drugs
- Access and benefit sharing of genetic resources
- Global resource sharing for the wellbeing of handicapped people
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Which of the following has become the first country to legalise child labour recently? Now, children as young as ten
years old are allowed to work.
- Bolivia
- Cambodia
- Nigeria
- Kenya
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
The Finance Minister cleared the way for the Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in his budget speech recently.
Which of the following is correct with respect to REITs?
- These are vehicles that hold and manage large commercial rent-earning properties on behalf of investors.
- The REITs manager should have a net worth Rs 5 cr and the sponsor Rs 20 cr.
- A REIT can hold multiple properties and can go for a public offering if properties are worth more than Rs 1,000 cr.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
What is India’s ranking in the annual Global Innovation Index (GII) survey for 2014?
- 53rd
- 61st
- 66th
- 76th
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
A passenger plane of which of the following countries was allegedly shot down in eastern Ukraine recently killing all 295
people aboard?
- Malaysia
- Indonesia
- Israel
- Iran
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The Signature Bridge is being constructed across river Yamuna in which of the following cities in India?
- Agra
- Delhi
- Mathura
- Allahabad
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
The Signature Bridge is being constructed across river Yamuna in which of the following cities in India?
- Agra
- Delhi
- Mathura
- Allahabad
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
The military operation ‘Operation Protective Edge’ is being conducted by
- Israel against Hamas in Palestine
- US against Syrian regime
- Ukraine govt against pro-Russian rebels
- US against ISIS militants in Iraq
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
Which of the following states in India has the highest percentage of poor (47.9 per cent) in the country as per C
Rangarajan panel report?
- Madhya Pradesh
- Odisha
- Chhattisgarh
- Chhattisgarh
- Manipur
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Renowned scholar Granville Austin died recently. Awarded a Padma Shri, he was a scholar of Indian
- Constitution
- History
- Geography
- Philosophy
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The World Bank president is all set to visit New Delh on a three-day visit to meet PM Narendra Modi and Finance
Minister Arun Jaitley. Who among the following is the current President of the World Bank group?
- Robert Zoellick
- Paul Farmer
- Jim Yong Kim
- Christine Lagarde
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
As per the ‘Employment Exchange Statistics 2013’, which is of the following states tops in terms of providing jobs through employment exchanges?
- Maharashtra
- Kerala
- Gujarat
- West Bengal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
Germany has topped the recently released FIFA world rankings. What is India’s position in the rankings?
- 144th
- 151th
- 154th
- 158th
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
The annual naval engagement Malabar exercise is to be conducted soon. This exercise will be a trilateral engagement and
will be participated by
- India, Japan, Vietnam
- India, South Korea, Japan
- India, US, Japan
- India, South Korea, US
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
Which of the following is the most urbansied state of the country with 62.17% as urban population?
- Kerala
- Tamil Nadu
- Goa
- Mizoram
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Internet giant Google revealed that it would be launching ‘Project Zero’ programme soon. This project is aimed at
- finding software bugs online
- running advertisement of new startups for free
- eliminating rivals from search engine platform
- inviting volunteers to work with Google
- None of threse
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
As per the C Rangarajan panel report, which of the following states in India is the most prosperous state as it has least
proportion (6.3 per cent) of poor population?
- Goa
- Tamil Nadu
- Kerala
- Sikkim
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has topped the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2014? The GII is jointly published by
Cornell University, INSEAD, and the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) for 143 economies around the world.
- Finland
- Switzerland
- Sweden
- United Kingdom
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
India hosted the Conference of Parties (CoP-11) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in Hyderabad in Oct
2012, and the next CoP is to be held in ________in Oct this year.
- Pyeongchang, South Korea
- Buenos Aires, Argentina
- Tokyo, Japan
- Brasilia, Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
The Central govt has allocated what amount for ultra large solar power projects and solar parks in the Union Budget for
FY15?
- Rs 1000 cr
- Rs 2000 cr
- Rs 5000 cr
- Rs 10000 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries removed restrictions on foreign ownership of banks in the country recently under a
new law that allows 100 per cent foreign control?
- China
- Thailand
- Philippines
- Singapore
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
A ultra mega solar power project is to be set up in Sambhar, Rajasthan for which a MoU has been signed recently.
What will be the cumulative capacity of the plant which will be achieved in phases?
- 1000 MW
- 2000 MW
- 3000 MW
- 4000 MW
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
The authorities in Switzerland have revealed that the quantum of fake Indian rupee notes in their country is the third
highest for any foreign currency. Which of the following currencies tops in this regard?
- Chinese yuan
- US dollar
- Euro
- Canadian dollar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
India will soon sign bilateral APAs with a clutch of Japanese companies for the first time. APA stands for
- Advance-Pricing Agreement
- Advance-Policy Agreement
- Advance-Priority Agreement
- Advance-Pricing Assessment
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The Finance Minister has confided that the revenue collection is expected to exceed targets this fiscal. What is the
budget estimate for the revenue collection during 2014-15?
- Rs 11.58 lakh cr
- Rs 12.35 lakh cr
- Rs 13.64 lakh cr
- Rs 14.44 lakh cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
Legendary actor James Garner died recently. Best known for playing a detective in crime series ‘Rockford Files,’ he
belonged to
- US
- UK
- France
- Colombia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
Who among the following is the president of the Eleventh Conference of Parties (CoP-11) to the Convention on
Biological Diversity (CBD)?
- Nobuteru Ishihara
- Prakash Javadekar
- Ahmed Yusuf Nuristani
- Yoon Seong-kyu
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) has unveiled automatic info exchange framework to
curb black money internationally. The headquarters of OECD is situated in
- London
- Frankfurt
- Rome
- Paris
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
As per the C Rangarajan panel report, which of the following states in India has the highest incidence of urban poverty
(50.8 per cent) in the country?
- Bihar
- Uttar Pradesh
- Jharkhand
- Madhya Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
What does the standing wave ratio (SWR) of unity imply?
- Transmission line is open circuited
- Transmission line is short circuited
- Transmission lines characteristic impedance is not equal to load impedance
- Transmission lines characteristic impedance is not equal to load impedance
Correct

SWR = Where k (reflection coefficient) = 0

Which is only possible $VZ_{L}=Z_{0}$

SWR = $\frac{1+|K|}{1-|K|}$

K = $\frac{Z_{R}-Z_{0}}{Z_{R}+Z_{0}}$

Incorrect

SWR = Where k (reflection coefficient) = 0

Which is only possible $VZ_{L}=Z_{0}$

SWR = $\frac{1+|K|}{1-|K|}$

K = $\frac{Z_{R}-Z_{0}}{Z_{R}+Z_{0}}$
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
Which one of the following is the main cause of creeping in the induction type energy meters?
- Friction compensation
- Lag/Lead compensation
- Overload compensation
- Braking torque producing
Correct

Over compensation for friction is the main reason of creeping.

Incorrect

Over compensation for friction is the main reason of creeping.
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
For the network shown in the figure given, Z(0) = 3Ω and Z(∞) = 2. What are the value of R1 and R2, respectively?
- $2\Omega ,1\Omega$
- $3\Omega ,2\Omega$
- $1\Omega ,2\Omega$
- $2\Omega ,1\Omega$
Correct

For s = 0 capacitor will be open circuit
equivalent circuit is

$\Rightarrow Z_{0}=R_{1}+R_{2}=3$
For s = ∞ capacitor is short circuited

$\therefore Z_{\infty}=R_{1}=2$

$\therefore R_{2}=1\Omega$

Incorrect

For s = 0 capacitor will be open circuit
equivalent circuit is

$\Rightarrow Z_{0}=R_{1}+R_{2}=3$
For s = ∞ capacitor is short circuited

$\therefore Z_{\infty}=R_{1}=2$

$\therefore R_{2}=1\Omega$
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
A moving coil instrument gives full-scale deflection with a current of 100mA when the potential difference across its terminals is 50 mV. Calculate the shunt resistance to enable the instrument to read upto 100A.
- 10 ohm
- 8 ohm
- 6 ohm
- $5.005\times 10^{-4}$ ohm
Correct

Since $R_{m}=\frac{V_{m}}{I_{m}}$

= $\frac{50\times 10^{3}}{100\times 10^{-3}}$ = 0.5 ohm

Shut applying factor $N=\frac{I}{I_{m}}=\frac{100A}{100\times 10^{-3}}$ = 1000

Shunt resistance $R_{sh}=\frac{R_{m}}{N-1}=\frac{0.5}{1000-1}=5.005\times 10^{-4}\Omega$

Incorrect

Since $R_{m}=\frac{V_{m}}{I_{m}}$

= $\frac{50\times 10^{3}}{100\times 10^{-3}}$ = 0.5 ohm

Shut applying factor $N=\frac{I}{I_{m}}=\frac{100A}{100\times 10^{-3}}$ = 1000

Shunt resistance $R_{sh}=\frac{R_{m}}{N-1}=\frac{0.5}{1000-1}=5.005\times 10^{-4}\Omega$
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
1 KW heater is operated on 220V supply. Calculate the current.
- 4.54 A
- 5.50 A
- 6.50A
- None of these
Correct

Since P = VI

I = $\frac{P}{V}=\frac{1\times 10^{3}}{220}$ = 4.54 A

Incorrect

Since P = VI

I = $\frac{P}{V}=\frac{1\times 10^{3}}{220}$ = 4.54 A
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
What is the peak value of the ac waveform V = 1.5 sin 60 t
- 1.5V
- 2.5V
- 3.5V
- none of these
Correct

V = $V_{Peak}\sin \omega t$

$V_{Peak}=1.5$ V

Incorrect

V = $V_{Peak}\sin \omega t$

$V_{Peak}=1.5$ V
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
Which one reverse conducting thyristor possesses bidirectional current capability?
- GTO
- BJT
- MOSFET
- TRIAC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
A diode rectifier circuit converts
- ac input voltage into a fixed dc voltage
- dc input voltage into ac voltage
- ac input voltage into a variable dc voltage
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) was introduced first in
- 1950
- 1952
- 1953
- 1957
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
A dc chopper converts
- Variable dc input voltage to a controllable dc output voltage
- fixed dc input voltage to a controllable dc output voltage
- fixed dc input voltage to a fixed ac output voltage
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Zener diodes are specially constructed to have accurate and stable
- reverse breakdown voltage
- forward breakdown voltage
- reverse breakdown current
- forward breakdown current
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
In a single-phase full converter, the number of SCRs conducting during overlap is
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
When a UJT is used for triggering an SCR the wave shape of the voltage obtained from UJT circuit is a
- sine-wave
- saw-tooth wave
- trapezoidal wave
- square wave
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load-commutation mode in case load consists of
- RL
- RLC underdamped
- RLC overdamped
- RLC critically damped
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
A bistable multivibrator has
- one stable state
- two stable states
- Three stable states
- four stable states
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
Microprocesser has number of pins equal to
- 20
- 40
- 80
- 100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
Which of the following is a non-impact printer?
- Laser printer
- Dot matric printer
- Dairy wheel printer
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
Tuned amplifiers are generally operated as
- class A amplifiers
- class B amplifiers
- class C amplifiers
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
A platinum resistance thermometer can be used upto
- 500°C
- 1000°C
- 2000°C
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
The time-base signal waveform in a CRO is
- Sinusoidal
- Sawtooth
- triangular
- square
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
What are the charge carriers in semiconductors?
- electrons
- ions and electrons
- electrons and holes
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
Calculate the wavelength of radiation emitted by a GaP photo diode.

$E_{g}$ Gap = 2eV
- $0.52\mu m$
- $0.62\mu m$
- $0.82\mu m$
- None of these
Correct

Since $E_{g}$ = hv

V = $\frac{E_{g}}{h}$

$\therefore \frac{\lambda C}{v}=\frac{hc}{E_{g}}$

$\frac{6.625\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 10^{8}}{2\times 16\times 10^{-18}}$ = 0.62 $\mu m$

Incorrect

Since $E_{g}$ = hv

V = $\frac{E_{g}}{h}$

$\therefore \frac{\lambda C}{v}=\frac{hc}{E_{g}}$

$\frac{6.625\times 10^{-34}\times 3\times 10^{8}}{2\times 16\times 10^{-18}}$ = 0.62 $\mu m$
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
What is β of a transistor having a = 0.95?
- 15
- 17
- 19
- 21
Correct

Since , $\beta =\frac{\alpha }{1-\alpha }$

= $\beta =\frac{0.95}{0.05}$ = 19

Incorrect

Since , $\beta =\frac{\alpha }{1-\alpha }$

= $\beta =\frac{0.95}{0.05}$ = 19
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
In a transistor amplifier, the input resistance is 1KΩ, the collector load resistance is 2KΩ and the transistor β is 10. The voltage gain is
- 40
- 30
- 20
- 10
Correct

Since AV $\beta \times \frac{R_{C}}{R_{n}}=\frac{10\times 2}{1}$ = 20

Incorrect

Since AV $\beta \times \frac{R_{C}}{R_{n}}=\frac{10\times 2}{1}$ = 20
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
The output voltage of a power supply is 100V without load and drops to 80 V on loading. What is the regulation of the supply?
- 50%
- 25%
- 15%
- 5%
Correct

% Regulation = $\frac{V_{no-load}-V_{full\: load}}{V_{full\: lod}}\times 100$

= $\frac{100-80}{80}\times 100$ = 25%

Incorrect

% Regulation = $\frac{V_{no-load}-V_{full\: load}}{V_{full\: lod}}\times 100$

= $\frac{100-80}{80}\times 100$ = 25%
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
The potential difference between the cathode and grid of picture tube adjusts
- contrast control
- vertical hold
- brightness control
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
The color picture information is broken into the three primary colours as
- red, green, blue
- red, yellow Green
- violet, yellow, red
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
TV camera ‘Plumbicon’ works on the principle of
- photo volatic effect
- photo emissive effect
- photo conductive effect
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
What is the local oscillator frequency of a super-hytrodyne receiver tuned to 10MHz if the intermediate frequency is 2 MHz?
- 20MHz
- 15MHz
- 12MHz
- 10MHz
Correct

Since local oscillator frequency

= RF = IF = 10MHz + 2MHz = 12MHz

Incorrect

Since local oscillator frequency

= RF = IF = 10MHz + 2MHz = 12MHz
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
A radar transmitter is modulated by pulses of 1 µsec duration of a frequency of 1KHz and the average power transmitted is 100w. Determine the peak power.
- 100KW
- 200KW
- 300KW
- 400KW
Correct

Peak power

= Average power/duty ratio

= Average power/(Pulse width/ Time period)

= $\frac{100}{1\times 10^{-6}}=\frac{1}{10^{3}}$ = 100 KW

Incorrect

Peak power

= Average power/duty ratio

= Average power/(Pulse width/ Time period)

= $\frac{100}{1\times 10^{-6}}=\frac{1}{10^{3}}$ = 100 KW
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
In three phase transformers which connection is preferred when the voltage is to be stepped down?
- Star-Star
- Delta-Delta
- Star-Delta
- Delta-Star
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
The role of capacitor in a tube light is
- to improve voltage
- to improve current
- to improve power factor
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
Breaking capacity of a circuit breaker is given in
- KA
- KV
- MAV
- MW
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
Load factor is the ratio
- Average load/Maximum load
- Peak load/maximum load
- Average load/Peak load
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
Two transformers connected in parallel will share load according to
- efficiency
- current
- per unit impedance
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
The phase difference between the currents flowing in the primary and secondary windings of a transformer is
- 360°
- 180°
- 120°
- 90°
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
Determine the motor current in a 440V crane which hoists a load of 50KN at a uniform velocity of 0.5 m sec-1 if the efficiency is 80%.
- 91A
- 81A
- 71A
- 61A
Correct

Since efficiency $\eta =\frac{Useful\: Power}{Power\: spent}\times 100$ %

Load $\times$ Velocity $\times$ 100% (Current $\times$ Voltage)

$\frac{\Rightarrow 80=50\times 10^{3}\times 0.5\times 100}{1\times 440}$ = 71 A

Incorrect

Since efficiency $\eta =\frac{Useful\: Power}{Power\: spent}\times 100$ %

Load $\times$ Velocity $\times$ 100% (Current $\times$ Voltage)

$\frac{\Rightarrow 80=50\times 10^{3}\times 0.5\times 100}{1\times 440}$ = 71 A
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
If 220 V, 3A alternating current is to be converted into 5V, what is the current in the secondary
- 132A
- 142A
- 150A
- 172A
Correct

Since $\frac{V_{P}}{V_{S}}=\frac{N_{P}}{N}=\frac{I_{S}}{I_{P}}$

= $\frac{N_{P}}{N_{S}}=\frac{220}{5}$ = 44

= $I_{S}=I_{P}\times \frac{N_{P}}{N_{S}}=3\times 44$ = 132 A

Incorrect

Since $\frac{V_{P}}{V_{S}}=\frac{N_{P}}{N}=\frac{I_{S}}{I_{P}}$

= $\frac{N_{P}}{N_{S}}=\frac{220}{5}$ = 44

= $I_{S}=I_{P}\times \frac{N_{P}}{N_{S}}=3\times 44$ = 132 A
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
If the voltage falls to 110V, the power of a 40W, 220V lamp decreases to
- 50W
- 40W
- 30W
- 20W
Correct

Since 40 = $220\times 9$

$\therefore I=\frac{40}{220}=\frac{2}{11}$ A

At 110 V

Power = $110\times \frac{2}{11}$ = 20W

Incorrect

Since 40 = $220\times 9$

$\therefore I=\frac{40}{220}=\frac{2}{11}$ A

At 110 V

Power = $110\times \frac{2}{11}$ = 20W
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
What maximum current can a 1ohm, 1 watt resistor withstand
- 2A
- 1A
- 0.5A
- None of these
Correct

Since $R=\frac{V}{I}$ = 1

Also V $\times$ I = 1 from which I = 1A

Incorrect

Since $R=\frac{V}{I}$ = 1

Also V $\times$ I = 1 from which I = 1A
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
Digital circuit has input and output variables as
- pulsed AC voltage
- pulsed DC voltage
- both AC and DC voltage
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
If the output voltage changes from one level to another abruptly as in a square rectangular, triangular or saw tooth wave, it is called
- harmonic oscillator
- relaxation oscillator
- phase-shift oscillator
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
Which oscillator has best frequency stability?
- Rc oscillators
- Lc oscillators
- crystal oscillators
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
Negative feedback in an amplifier increases
- Band width
- gain
- distortion
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
The use of OP AMP is restricted to
- AC only
- DC only
- both DC and AC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
The Schering bridge is used
- for measurement of loss angle in a dielectric
- measurement of frequency
- measurement of insulation resistance
- measurement of frequency
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
UV lamps are used in cafeteria/sweet shops for
- lighting
- beautification
- germicidal use
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
Which one of the following in an irreversible effect?
- Joule’s effect
- Peltier effect
- Seebeck effect
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
The resistivity of semiconductor decreases within
- decreasing temperature
- increasing temperature
- zero temperature
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
The most important semiconductor is
- Si
- GaAs
- Cds
- GaP
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Magnetic Keepers are made of
- steel
- soft iron
- nickel
- copper
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
A series R-L circuit is to be connected to an a.c. source v(t) = Vm sin(wt + φ) volt. Which one of the following is correct?
The transient current will be absent if the source is connected at a time t0 such that
- $\omega t_{0}$ = 0
- $\omega t_{0}=\frac{\pi}{2}$
- $\omega t_{0}=\tan^{-1}\frac{\omega L}{R}$
- $\omega t_{0}$ has any arbitrary value
Correct

To have zero transient cuttent the instantaneous angle of source should be equal to impedance angle.

Incorrect

To have zero transient cuttent the instantaneous angle of source should be equal to impedance angle.
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
A cycloconverter is basically
- phase controlled
- frequency controlled
- current controlled
- voltage controlled
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
What is the typical voltage range of heart signals?
- - 0.5 to 5 mV
- 1 to 10 mV
- 2 to 15 mV
- 5 to 20 mV
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
Aircraft equipments are designed to operate at higher frequency to
- make them light is weight
- make them heavy in weight
- make them very heavy in weight
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Bimetallic strip is
- active transducer
- passive transducer
- linear transducer
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
The speed of sound in air at 0°C is approximately
- 5100 m/s
- 1450 m/s
- 330 m/s
- 250 m/s
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
The wavelength of the wave generated by a tuning fork of frequency 250 Hz, velocity of sound in air at ordinary condition is 340 m/s is
- 3.33 m
- 2.33 m
- 1.33 m
- 0.33 m
Correct

Given F = 256 Hz

V = 340 m/s

$\lambda =\frac{V}{f}=\frac{340}{256}$ = 1.33 m

Incorrect

Given F = 256 Hz

V = 340 m/s

$\lambda =\frac{V}{f}=\frac{340}{256}$ = 1.33 m
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
For source voltage of 230 V, 50Hz and for R = 8Ω, E = 150 V the diode will start conducting at an angle.
- 27.466°
- 25.566°
- 24.466°
- 23.366°
Correct

Since $\theta _{1}=\sin^{-1}\frac{150}{\sqrt{2}\times 230}=27.466^{\circ}$

Incorrect

Since $\theta _{1}=\sin^{-1}\frac{150}{\sqrt{2}\times 230}=27.466^{\circ}$
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
A single-phase full bridge diode rectifier is supplied from 230 V, 50 Hz source. The load consists of R = 10 Ω then average value of output current is
- 10.35 A
- 20.704 A
- 30.504 A
- 40.04 A
Correct

Average Value of output voltage

$V_{0}=\frac{2Vm}{\pi}=\frac{2\sqrt{2}\times 230}{\pi}$ = 207.04V

Incorrect

Average Value of output voltage

$V_{0}=\frac{2Vm}{\pi}=\frac{2\sqrt{2}\times 230}{\pi}$ = 207.04V
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
Horizontal hold control in a TV is a
- variable inductance
- variable capacitance
- variable resistance
- variable voltage
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
Automatic Gain Control is achieved by
- positive feed back
- negative feed back
- both positive feedback and Negative feed back
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
Television is the transmission and reception of motion picture over
- ground wave
- sky wave
- radio wave
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
If the maximum amplitude of the modulating signal am = 500 V and the average amplitude (E0) of the unmodulated carrier is 1000V, the degree of modulation is
- 0.5
- 0.75
- 0.85
- 0.95
Correct

Degree of modulation $m_{a}=\frac{a_{m}}{E_{0}}=\frac{500}{1000}=0.5$

Incorrect

Degree of modulation $m_{a}=\frac{a_{m}}{E_{0}}=\frac{500}{1000}=0.5$
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
On a given resistor if the colours of the bands are black orange yellow calculate Resistor value
- 50 KΩ
- 40 KΩ
- 30 KΩ
- 20 KΩ
Correct

Since ,

Black = 0

Orange = 3

Yellow = $10^{4}$

Resistance value = $3\times 10^{4}=30K\Omega$

Incorrect

Since ,

Black = 0

Orange = 3

Yellow = $10^{4}$

Resistance value = $3\times 10^{4}=30K\Omega$
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor
- DC commutator motor
- Brushless dc motor
- Stepper motor
- Reluctance motor
Correct

The rotor of a permanent magnet stepper motor is made of ferrite or rare-earth material which is permanently magnetized. This motor is designed to rotate through a specific angle (called a step) for each electrical pulse received by its control unit.
There are two advantages in using stepper motors.
(i) Their compatibility with digital systems.
(ii) No sensors are needed for position and speed sensing.

Incorrect

The rotor of a permanent magnet stepper motor is made of ferrite or rare-earth material which is permanently magnetized. This motor is designed to rotate through a specific angle (called a step) for each electrical pulse received by its control unit.
There are two advantages in using stepper motors.
(i) Their compatibility with digital systems.
(ii) No sensors are needed for position and speed sensing.
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is
- Kaplan
- Francis
- Pelton
- Impeller
Correct

Kaplan is used for run-of-river and poundage stations with heads of up 61 m (low head). This type has an axial-flow rotor with variable-pitch blades.

Incorrect

Kaplan is used for run-of-river and poundage stations with heads of up 61 m (low head). This type has an axial-flow rotor with variable-pitch blades.
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per phase line capacitance of 11.68 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power transfer capability in MW is
- 1204MW
- 1504MW
- 2085 MW
- 2606 MW
Correct

Parameter of line

Inductance L = 1.1 mH/Km

Capacitance C = 11.68 nF/Km

Surge impedance of the line

= $Z_{S}=\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}=\sqrt{\frac{1.1\times 10^{-3}}{11.68}\times 10^{-9}}$

$\Rightarrow Z_{S}=306.88\Omega$

Ideal power transfer capability = $\frac{V^{2}_{l-l}}{Z_{s}}=\frac{(800\times 10^{3})^{2}}{306.88}=2085\times 10^{6}$

= 2085MW

Incorrect

Parameter of line

Inductance L = 1.1 mH/Km

Capacitance C = 11.68 nF/Km

Surge impedance of the line

= $Z_{S}=\sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}=\sqrt{\frac{1.1\times 10^{-3}}{11.68}\times 10^{-9}}$

$\Rightarrow Z_{S}=306.88\Omega$

Ideal power transfer capability = $\frac{V^{2}_{l-l}}{Z_{s}}=\frac{(800\times 10^{3})^{2}}{306.88}=2085\times 10^{6}$

= 2085MW
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
The Q-meter works on the principle of
- mutual inductance
- self inductance
- series resonance
- parallel resonance
Correct

$Q=\frac{\omega _{0}L}{R}$

Where $\omega _{0}$ is the resonant angular frequency ,where $\omega _{0}$ is the resonant angular frequency,
L is the inductance and R is the effective resistance of the coil.
The principle of working of Q-meter is based upon series resonance of R, L, C circuit.

Incorrect

$Q=\frac{\omega _{0}L}{R}$

Where $\omega _{0}$ is the resonant angular frequency ,where $\omega _{0}$ is the resonant angular frequency,
L is the inductance and R is the effective resistance of the coil.
The principle of working of Q-meter is based upon series resonance of R, L, C circuit.
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
The digital circuit using two inverters shown in figure will act as
- a bistable multi-vibrator
- an astable multi-vibrator
- a monostable multi-vibrator
- an oscillator
Correct

For the both states (0, 1); our system is stable
Therefore it is bistable multi vibrator.

Incorrect

For the both states (0, 1); our system is stable
Therefore it is bistable multi vibrator.
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
The voltage comparator shown in figure can be used in the analog-to-digital conversion as
- al-bit quantizer
- a 2-bit quantizer
- a 4-bit quantizer
- a 8-bit quantizer
Correct

Even when $V _{1}$ > $V _{2}$ , the (o/ p) $V _{0}$ is high and for the next case ( $V _{1}$ < $V _{2}$ ) (o/p) is low it is 1 bit quantizer. Since it has two states which can be repre¬sented by 1 bit.

Incorrect

Even when $V _{1}$ > $V _{2}$ , the (o/ p) $V _{0}$ is high and for the next case ( $V _{1}$ < $V _{2}$ ) (o/p) is low it is 1 bit quantizer. Since it has two states which can be repre¬sented by 1 bit.
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
Which of the following statements holds for the divergence of electric and magnetic flux densities?
- Both are zero
- These are zero for static densities but non zero for time varying densities
- It is zero for the electric flux density
- It is zero for the magnetic flux density
Correct

The divergence of magnetic field is always zero because magnetic flux makes always a closed path.

So, $\overline{V}\cdot \overrightarrow{B}=0$ (Max Well’s equation)

while divergence of electric field

$\overline{V}\cdot \overrightarrow{E}=\frac{\rho _{v}}{\epsilon }$

Incorrect

The divergence of magnetic field is always zero because magnetic flux makes always a closed path.

So, $\overline{V}\cdot \overrightarrow{B}=0$ (Max Well’s equation)

while divergence of electric field

$\overline{V}\cdot \overrightarrow{E}=\frac{\rho _{v}}{\epsilon }$
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best approximated by
- a parabola
- a straight line
- a rectangular hyperbola
- an exponentially decaying function
Correct

Let I = device current
$R_{ON}$ = ON state resistance of power MOSFET Conduction loss

= p = $I^{2}R_{ON}$

Therefore, connectionless versus device current characteristic can be best approximated by a parabola.

Incorrect

Let I = device current
$R_{ON}$ = ON state resistance of power MOSFET Conduction loss

= p = $I^{2}R_{ON}$

Therefore, connectionless versus device current characteristic can be best approximated by a parabola.
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
For the equation

x(t) + 2x(t) +3x(t) = 0

the solution x(t) approaches which of the following values as t —> ∞?
- 0
- 5/2
- 5
- 10
Correct

x'' (t) + 3 x'(t) + 2x(t) = 5

By taking Laplace transform

(s2 + 3s + 2) X (s) = $\frac{5}{2}$

X(S) = $\frac{5/s}{s^{2}+3s+2}$

$\lim_{t\rightarrow \infty }=\lim_{S\rightarrow 0}sX(s)=\frac{5}{2}$

Incorrect

x'' (t) + 3 x'(t) + 2x(t) = 5

By taking Laplace transform

(s2 + 3s + 2) X (s) = $\frac{5}{2}$

X(S) = $\frac{5/s}{s^{2}+3s+2}$

$\lim_{t\rightarrow \infty }=\lim_{S\rightarrow 0}sX(s)=\frac{5}{2}$
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
A copper wire carries a conduction current of 1.0a at 50 Hz. For copper wire ε = $\varepsilon _{0}$ , µ = $\mu _{0}$ , σ= 5.8 $\times$ 10 mho/m. What is displacement current in the wire?
- 2.8 $\times$ 10A
- 4.8 $\times$ 10A
- 1A
- It cannot be calculated with the given data
Correct

$\frac{JC}{JD}=\frac{\sigma \omega}{\varepsilon }=\frac{I_{C}}{I_{D}}\cdot \frac{A}{A}$

$\therefore I_{D}=I_{C}\cdot \frac{\omega \varepsilon}{\sigma}=1\times \frac{2\times \pi \times 50\times 10^{-9}}{5.8\times 10\times 36\pi }=4.8\times 10^{-11}A$

Incorrect

$\frac{JC}{JD}=\frac{\sigma \omega}{\varepsilon }=\frac{I_{C}}{I_{D}}\cdot \frac{A}{A}$

$\therefore I_{D}=I_{C}\cdot \frac{\omega \varepsilon}{\sigma}=1\times \frac{2\times \pi \times 50\times 10^{-9}}{5.8\times 10\times 36\pi }=4.8\times 10^{-11}A$
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
A dielectric material has the real part of the dielectric constant (εr) as 4 and its loss tangent is 0.004. What is the complex dielectric constant (εr) represented by?
- 4 + j0.016
- 4 - j0.016
- 4 + k0.016
- 4 - k0.016
Correct

The complex dielectric constant of material is given by the expression

$\varepsilon =\varepsilon'-\varepsilon''$

Loss tangent $\tan \delta =\frac{\varepsilon ^{n}r}{\varepsilon ^{t}r}$

Or $\varepsilon''_{r}=\varepsilon'_{r}=\tan \delta =4\times 0.004$ = 0.016

$\varepsilon_{r}=\varepsilon'_{r}-j\varepsilon^{n}_{r}$ = 4 - j0.016

Incorrect

The complex dielectric constant of material is given by the expression

$\varepsilon =\varepsilon'-\varepsilon''$

Loss tangent $\tan \delta =\frac{\varepsilon ^{n}r}{\varepsilon ^{t}r}$

Or $\varepsilon''_{r}=\varepsilon'_{r}=\tan \delta =4\times 0.004$ = 0.016

$\varepsilon_{r}=\varepsilon'_{r}-j\varepsilon^{n}_{r}$ = 4 - j0.016
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
At resonant frequency a R-L- C sericircuit draws maximum current due to the reason that
- the difference between capacitance reactance and inductance reactance is zero.
- the impedance is more than to resistance
- the voltage across the capacitor equal the applied voltage.
- the power factor is less than unity.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
In the transistor circuit as shown below, the collector to ground voltage is + 20V. The possible condition is
- Collector-emitter terminals shorted
- Emitter to ground connection open
- 10 kilo ohms resistor open
- Collector-base terminals shorted
Correct

If Emitter to ground is open 'circuit’ then transistor does not conduct, whole of $V_{CC}$ is available at collector sc $V_{Cg}$ = +20V.

Incorrect

If Emitter to ground is open 'circuit’ then transistor does not conduct, whole of $V_{CC}$ is available at collector sc $V_{Cg}$ = +20V.
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
The reduced form of the Boolean expression

$A[B+C(\overline{AB+AC})]$
- $\overline{A}B$
- $\overline{A}+\overline{B}$
- A . B
- AB + AC
Correct

$A[B+C(\overline{AB+AC})]$

= $A.B+A.C(\overline{AB}\cdot \overline{AC})$

= $AB+AC[(\overline{A}+\overline{B})\cdot (\overline{A}+\overline{C})]$

= $A.B+AC(\overline{AA}+\overline{AB}+\overline{AC}+\overline{BC})$

= A.B + 0 = A.B

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
In AM , the percentage of total power in sideband is
- 10%
- 16.67%
- 23.34%
- 37.5%
Correct

$P_{t}=P_{C}\left(1+\frac{m^{2}a}{4}\right)$

$P_{SB}=P_{C}\left(\frac{m^{2}a}{4}\right)$

Let $m_{a}=1$

% $P_{SB}=\frac{(P_{C}/4)\times 100}{(3P_{C}/2)}$

= $\frac{1}{6}\times 100$ = 16.67 %

Incorrect

$P_{t}=P_{C}\left(1+\frac{m^{2}a}{4}\right)$

$P_{SB}=P_{C}\left(\frac{m^{2}a}{4}\right)$

Let $m_{a}=1$

% $P_{SB}=\frac{(P_{C}/4)\times 100}{(3P_{C}/2)}$

= $\frac{1}{6}\times 100$ = 16.67 %
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The luminance signal modulation in PAL system is
- AM (positive)
- AM (negative)
- FM
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
Microwave links are preferred to coaxial cables for transmission because
- They have less overall distortion
- They have greater band-widths
- Of their relative immunity to impulse noise
- They are cheaper
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
Near far effect is more prominent in
- Direct sequence spread spectrum technique
- Direct sequence CDMA technique
- Frequency hopped spread spectrum technique
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
The satellite series developed by ISRO for measurement of earth observation application is the
- INSAT-2 series
- INSAT-1 series
- IRS series
- SROSS-C series
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
Satellite used for intercontinental communications are known as
- (1) COMSAT
- MARISAT
- DOMSAT
- INTELSAT
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
The amplifier contributing maximum noise in a receiver is
- LNA
- IF
- Video
- Audio
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
The pulse -width modulated inverter for the control of an ac motor is fed from which one of the following?
- Controlled rectifier
- Uncontrolled rectifier
- Ac regulator
- Cycloconverter
Correct

Uncontrolled i.e. O/P voltage is obtained by adjusting on - off the inverter components. This method is cal P.W.M. control.

Incorrect

Uncontrolled i.e. O/P voltage is obtained by adjusting on - off the inverter components. This method is cal P.W.M. control.
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
Unit of magnetic flux is
- weber
- ampere-turn
- tesla
- coulomb
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
The .... generator has poorest voltage regulation.
- series
- shunt
- compound
- high
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
Time period of a RADARSET is
- 90.3 min
- 100.3 min
- 100.7min
- 110.7 min
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
The magnetising current drawn by transformers and induction motors is the cause of their .... power factor.
- zero
- unity
- lagging
- leading
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
In a 3-φ induction motor, the rotor field rotates at synchronous speed with respect to
- stator
- rotor
- stator flux
- none of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
Vertical blanking period is
- Equal to the vertical retrace
- Greater than the vertical retrace
- Less than the vertical retrace
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
A6-pole, 50-Hz, 3-φ induction motor is running at 950 rpm and has rotor Cu loss kW. Its rotor input is .... kW.
- 100
- 10
- 95
- 5.3
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Due to inductance in the pressure coil the dynamo meter wattemeter.
- reads low on lagging p.f. and high on leading p.f.
- reads high on lagging p.f. and low on leading p.f.
- reading is not affected at all.
- always reads low
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
Satellite used for weather forecast applications are known as
- GORIZONT
- TIROS -N
- COMSAT
- SPOT
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Voice is digitized using an ADC with a sampling period of 0.1 millisecond and 10 bits/sample. What is the bit rate in kbps generated by this system?
- 100 kbps
- 1000 kbps
- 9.9 kbps
- 10.1 kbps
Correct

Here, sampling frequency $f_{r}=\frac{1}{0.1}$ = 10 Kc/sec and n = 10

So, bit Rate = nfs = 100 kbp

Incorrect

Here, sampling frequency $f_{r}=\frac{1}{0.1}$ = 10 Kc/sec and n = 10

So, bit Rate = nfs = 100 kbp
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
In photoemission principle when the intensity of light from the scene to be televised in increased
- The number of electrons emitted from the target is increased.
- The number of electrons emitted from the target is decreased
- In dependent of wavelength
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
Universal lens i.e. used for televising normal scenes have an angle
- 20° to 60°
- 40° to 80°
- 90°
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
Which one of the following fuels is used by the slow thermal reactors for power generation?
- $U^{235}$
- $U^{238}$
- $Th^{232}$
- $Pu^{239}$
Correct

$U^{235}$ is used as a fuel by the slow thermal nuclear reactors for power generation.

Incorrect

$U^{235}$ is used as a fuel by the slow thermal nuclear reactors for power generation.

Please comment on Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 5 - Time 2 Hours

4 Comments

sahil ram on August 15, 2024 at 10:33 am

saikrishnaposham3198@gmail.com
Reply
sahil ram on August 15, 2024 at 10:32 am

your class very good luck
Reply
sahil ram on August 15, 2024 at 10:31 am

good subject
Reply
lohith on December 26, 2017 at 2:22 pm

question are not related actual syllabus more questions are form communication background not satisfied with your question papers
Reply

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