Junior Engineer Civil Practice Paper 2 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Civil - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code?
- EPMT
- TPME
- EMPT
- CKNR
- ETPM
Correct

Incorrect
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- 19
- 17
- 13
- 27
- 37
Correct

Incorrect
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?

BE GJ LO QT ?
- UX
- VY
- SV
- SV
- RU
- WZ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which has as many letters berween them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?
- None
- one
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: F @ N, NδR, H @ R
Conclusions : I. HδN, II. F#R
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: M # T, T @ K, K$ N
Condusions: I.M#N, II.KδM
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: T%H, H $ W
Conclusions: I. W#T, II. W%T
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: NδK, K#D, D%M
Conclusions: I. MδK, II. D δ N
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: J $ B, B % R, R δF
Conclusions: I.F#B, II.R@J
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate right of C?
- D
- G
- E
- B
- Data inadequate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is the only one person sitting between A and G?
- B
- D
- C
- E
- F
Correct

Incorrect
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate left of D?
- B
- C
- A
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is second to the left of C?
- B
- G
- F
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

What is E s position with respect to D?
- To the immediate right
- To the immediate left
- Third to the right
- Second to the right
- Third to the left
Correct

Incorrect
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. ERWHKA
- 2@@6#7
- 7@@6#2
- 1@O6#t
- 2@@6#2
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. MPEKDU
- $42#s5
- s42#s$
- M2#s5
- U2s#$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. TMEIUF
- 7$2o/o8
- 7$2o/oV
- 9S2%67
- 9$2o/o0
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. JTAERI
- %712@3
- 3772@3
- x772@*
- o/o772@o/o
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. UKTMIH
- 6#7$0/o6
- 6#7$0/o8
- "#7$o/o"
- 7#$o/o6
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Read the following information carefully, and answer the questions which follow : A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H study in different standards viz. 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th. All of them are seated around a circular table facing the center C sits third to right of H" H studies in std. B' F sits second to left of E" E is not an immediate neighbor of C or H. The one who studies in std. 1 is an immediate neighbor of E. Three people sit between H and the student of std. 7. H, C and also their immediate neighbors do not study in std. 2. Only one person sits between, the student of std. 2 and G. Students of std. 3 and 4 are immediate neighbors of each other. C is neither in std. 4 nor in std. 3. Only one person sits between A and the student of std 5. A does not study in std. 2 or 3. B does not study in std 2.
Ques. Which of the following is true regarding F?
- F studies in std. 5
- D and G are immediate neightrours of F
- One person sits between F and the student of std. 4
- F sits second to right of A
- None is true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Who amongst the following studies in std. 3?
- C
- F
- G
- B
- CANNOT BE DEFINED
Correct

Incorrect
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
How many persons sit between D and the student of std. 4, when counted from tire left hand side of student of std. 4?
- NONE
- ONE
- TWO
- THREE
- FOUR
Correct

Three {H,G,E}

Incorrect

Three {H,G,E}
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Which of the following is true?
- Only one person is sitting between student of std. 4 and std. 6
- D studies in std. 2
- The one studying in std, 3 is an immediate neighbour of H
- One person sits between H and the student of std. 2
- None is true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Who amongst the following represent immediate neighbours of G?
- A,B
- E and the student of std. 2
- H and the student of std. 6
- E, F
- A, D
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- B A H
- E D G
- C B F
- H G A
- D E F
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

ALL OTHERS SECOND PERSON IS IMMEDIATE LEFT OF THE FIRST PERSON
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- ED
- FC
- AH
- EG
- CB
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

All others second person is immediate left of the person
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
What wiil come in the place of the question mark?
GDBA?
- E
- F
- C
- H
- A
Correct

Incorrect
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
- Asia
- Antarctica
- Africa
- Aiaska
- Australia
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

Alaska is not a continent
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
- Trophy
- Medal
- Gift
- Certificate
- Prize
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

gift is not gained by a competition
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- MPQO
- DGHF
- RUTV
- VYZX
- jMNL
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- AMCL
- WIVK
- GVIU
- XDZC
- HRJQ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- AZMN
- BYEF
- cxuv
- FUNO
- IRDV
Correct

Incorrect
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Seven lectures are scheduled to be held in a week. There is only one lecture on each of the seven days of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught either on Wednesday or on Saturday. Three lectures are scheduled Lo be held between Chemistry and English, Two lectures are scheduled to be held between English and Computers. Lecture on Physics is scheduled on the day which is immediately next to the day when lecture on Biology is scheduled. Lecture on Psychological, is scheduled to be held after Mathematics (not necessarily immediately after mathematics). Lecture on Psychology is not scheduled for Saturday or Sunday.

Which of the following lectures is scheduled for Thursday?
- Mathematics
- English
- Physics
- Biology
- Computers
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Which of the following combinations of day-lecture is correct?
- Saturday-Physics
- Monday-Biology
- Tuesday-English
- Thursday-English
- Sunday-Computers
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
How many lectures are scheduled between Chemistry and Physics?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- five
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

computers,biology
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
If Chemistry is related to Biology and Psychology is related to Computers in a certain way based upon the given lecture schedule, then Biology will be related to which of the following based upon the same relationship?
- English
- Mathematics
- Physics
- Chemistry
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
On which of the following days is the lecture on Psychology scheduled?
- Tuesday
- Friday
- Thursday
- Monday
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
Which of the following lecture/s is/are scheduled to be held between the lectures on Chemistry and Physics?
- No lecture is scheduled between these two lectures
- Only Computers
- Computers and Psychology
- Computers and Biology
- English and Mathematics
Correct

Incorrect
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
How many lectures are scheduled to be held between English and mathematics?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Five
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

Physics,Biology,Computers,Chemistry,Physiology
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In a certain code,
'more money in market' is written as 'zo li aa to'
'share in market profit' is written as 'vo to je li'
'making more profit now' is written as 'su je zo ka'
'now the market gains' is written as 'do li yo su'
- profit
- in
- market
- in or profit
- share
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

vo -> share
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
What is the code for'making'?
- ka
- su
- zo
- ie
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

making > ka
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
Which of the following is the code for 'gain'?
- su
- li
- yo
- do
- yo or do
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

gains > yo or do
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
Which of the following can be the code for the more you share'?
- do yo zo vo
- vo wi zo do
- vo zo wi bu
- yo je vo wi
- su vo zo do
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

more > zo, share > vo, the > do or yo
Hence, the more you share > vo wi zo do
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Six persons Arun, Mala, Vimla, Suresh, Ramesh and Varun are related to six different industries, viz. Chemicals, Rubber, Plastic, Oil, Hardware and Leather but not necessarily in the same order. Each person wears a ring of different stones. Diamond, Emerald,Ruby, Gold, Sapphire and Topaz but not necesserily in the same order.
1. Arun wears ring of Topaz and Mala works in Plastic industry.
2. Varun does not wear Sapphire nor is related to Hardware industry.
3. Vimla has a ring of Diamond but she does not work in either Oil or Chemical industry.
4. Suresh works in Rubber industry but does not wear the ring of either Gold or Sapphire.
5. Ramesh works in Leather industry and wears ring of Emerald

Who among the following does wear a ring of Sapphire?
- Suresh
- Varun
- Mala
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Mala does wear a ring of sapphire.

person Industry Stone

Arun Chemical/Oil Topaz

Mala Plastic Sapphire

Vimla Hardware Diamond

Suresh Rubber Ruby

Ramesh Leather Emerald

Varun Chemical/Oil Gold
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Six persons Arun, Mala, Vimla, Suresh, Ramesh and Varun are related to six different industries, viz. Chemicals, Rubber, Plastic, Oil, Hardware and Leather
but not necessarily in the same order. Each person wears a ring of different stones. Diamond, Emerald,Ruby, Gold, Sapphire and Topaz but not necessarily in the same order.
1. Arun wears ring of Topaz and Mala works in Plastic industry.
2. Varun does not wear Sapphire nor is related to Hardware industry.
3. Vimla has a ring of Diamond but she does not work in either Oil or Chemical industry.
4. Suresh works in Rubber industry but does not wear the ring of either Gold or Sapphire.
5. Ramesh works in Leather industry and wears ring of Emerald

Vimala works in which of the following industries?
- Hardware
- Chemicals
- Leather
- Cannot be determined
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Vimala does work in Hardware industry.

person Industry Stone

Arun Chemical/Oil Topaz

Mala Plastic Sapphire

Vimla Hardware Diamond

Suresh Rubber Ruby

Ramesh Leather Emerald

Varun Chemical/Oil Gold
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Six persons Arun, Mala, Vimla, Suresh, Ramesh and Varun are related to six different industries, viz. Chemicals, Rubber, Plastic, Oil, Hardware and Leather
but not necessarily in the same order. Each person wears a ring of different stones. Diamond, Emerald,Ruby, Gold, Sapphire and Topaz but not necessarily in the same order.
1. Arun wears ring of Topaz and Mala works in Plastic industry.
2. Varun does not wear Sapphire nor is related to Hardware industry.
3. Vimla has a ring of Diamond but she does not work in either Oil or Chemical industry.
4. Suresh works in Rubber industry but does not wear the ring of either Gold or Sapphire.
5. Ramesh works in Leather industry and wears ring of Emerald

Which of the following combinations is definitely true?
- Mala-Sapphire-Hardware
- Ramesh-Leather-Ruby
- Suresh-Plastic-Ruby
- Arun-Topaz-Oil
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect

None of the above

person Industry Stone

Arun Chemical/Oil Topaz

Mala Plastic Sapphire

Vimla Hardware Diamond

Suresh Rubber Ruby

Ramesh Leather Emerald

Varun Chemical/Oil Gold
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G from three different colleges X, Y and Z study different subjects viz., Psychology, Sociology, History, Geography, Economics, Accountancy and English not necessarily in the same order. At least two students study in each college. D studies Psychology in college X with only F. B studies English and E studies Geography but none of them studies in college Y. The one who studies Sociology studies in college Z. G studies Accountancy and C studies History.

Which of the following is the correct combination of College, student and subject?
- Z-A-English
- Y-A-Sociology
- Y-E-Geography
- Z-E-Geography
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Student College Subject

A Z Sociology

B Z English

C Y History

D X Psychology

E Z Geography

F X Economics

G Y Accountancy
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Six persons Arun, Mala, Vimla, Suresh, Ramesh and Varun are related to six different industries, viz. Chemicals, Rubber, Plastic, Oil, Hardware and Leather
but not necessarily in the same order. Each person wears a ring of different stones. Diamond, Emerald,Ruby, Gold, Sapphire and Topaz but not necessarily in the same order.
1. Arun wears ring of Topaz and Mala works in Plastic industry.
2. Varun does not wear Sapphire nor is related to Hardware industry.
3. Vimla has a ring of Diamond but she does not work in either Oil or Chemical industry.
4. Suresh works in Rubber industry but does not wear the ring of either Gold or Sapphire.
5. Ramesh works in Leather industry and wears ring of Emerald

Arun is related with which of the following industries?
- Chemicals
- Oil
- Hardware
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Arun does works either chemical or oil industry.

person Industry Stone

Arun Chemical/Oil Topaz

Mala Plastic Sapphire

Vimla Hardware Diamond

Suresh Rubber Ruby

Ramesh Leather Emerald

Varun Chemical/Oil Gold
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow.
Six persons Arun, Mala, Vimla, Suresh, Ramesh and Varun are related to six different industries, viz. Chemicals, Rubber, Plastic, Oil, Hardware and Leather
but not necessarily in the same order. Each person wears a ring of different stones. Diamond, Emerald,Ruby, Gold, Sapphire and Topaz but not necessarily in the same order.
1. Arun wears ring of Topaz and Mala works in Plastic industry.
2. Varun does not wear Sapphire nor is related to Hardware industry.
3. Vimla has a ring of Diamond but she does not work in either Oil or Chemical industry.
4. Suresh works in Rubber industry but does not wear the ring of either Gold or Sapphire.
5. Ramesh works in Leather industry and wears ring of Emerald

Which one of the following stones does Varun wear?
- Emerald
- Gold
- Sapphire
- Data inadeeuate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Varun does wear gold.

person Industry Stone

Arun Chemical/Oil Topaz

Mala Plastic Sapphire

Vimla Hardware Diamond

Suresh Rubber Ruby

Ramesh Leather Emerald

Varun Chemical/Oil Gold
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Which of the following islands became the first island in the world fully energy self-sufficient through combined water and wind power recently?
- El Hierro
- Mindanao
- Hokkaido
- Sakhalin
- Banks Island
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
The expert committee headed by former Axis Bank Chairman, PJ Nayak, constituted to review the governance of Boards of Banks in India, submitted its report recently. Which of the following is NOT recommended by the Committee?
- Banks should not be incorporated under the Companies Act.
- A Bank Investment Company should be constituted where the govt holding in all the banks should be transferred.
- If a bank is identified as ‘distressed’, private equity and sovereign wealth funds should be permitted to take a controlling stake of up to 40 per cent.
- There should be a minimum five-year tenure for bank chairmen and minimum three year tenure for executive directors.
- Constraints like applicability of the Right to Information Act should be rapidly eliminated or significantly reduced in order to avoid erosion of competitiveness.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The BJP became the first political party in India to get a majority in the General Election on its own since ________when the Indian National Congress had done so.
- 1952
- 1962
- 1971
- 1984
- 1989
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
Name the footballer who agreed to sign a new contract with Barcelona making him the best paid player in the world recently?
- Lionel Messi
- Cristiano Ronaldo
- Neymar
- Gareth Bale
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
Who among the following topped the list of UK billionaires made public in London recently?
- 1) Lord Swraj Paul
- 2) Lakshmi N Mittal
- 3) Prakash Lohia
- Srichand and Gopichand Hinduja
- Anil Agarwal
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
The sixteenth Lok Sabha election has created a situation when no single party qualify for a Leader of the Opposition post
as the rules mandated that the LoP should be from a party whose members constitute at least ________of the total strength of the House.
- 5 per cent
- 7 per cent
- 10 per cent
- 12 per cent
- 15 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
Russi Mody, who passed away, recently, was former chief of which of the following companies?
- Tisco (now Tata Steel)
- Telco (now Tata Motors)
- Balco
- Nalco
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
Citizens of which of the following counties rejected adopting world’s highest minimum wage (25 dollars an hour) in a referendum held there recently?
- Switzerland
- Norway
- South Korea
- US
- France
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
India suffered loss to Malaysia in Thomas Cup held in New Delhi recently. Thomas Cup is associated with which of the
following games?
- Women’s tennis
- Men’s tennis
- Men’s badminton
- Women’s badminton
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
Nabam Tuki was sworn in as the new chief minister of which of the following states after the assembly poll held there recently?
- Mizoram
- Manipur
- Tripura
- Arunachal Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Biju janta Dal won the recent assembly polls in Odisha. Who among the following is all set to become the next Chief Minister of the state?
- Janaki Ballabh Patnaik
- Srikant Kumar Jena
- Baijayant Panda
- Pyarimohan Mohapatra
- Naveen Patnaik
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries approved a new tax regime, recently, under which those with annual net income of over USD 333,000 will be subject to a 45 per cent income tax rate?
- Taiwan (Republic of China)
- South Korea
- Singapore
- Philippines
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
Conference on Interaction and Confidence Building Measures in Asia (CICA) is a multi-national forum for peace, security and stability in Asia. The fourth CICA summit was held in which of the following cities recently?
- Istanbul
- Astana
- Shanghai
- Ankara
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Sir Jack Brabham, who passed away, recently, was three-time ________ world champion.
- Badminton
- Chess
- Squash
- Formula One
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
The Bhagwan Mahaveer Viklang Sahayata Samiti (BMVSS), an Indian NGO manufacturing the world famous Jaipur Foot, signed an agreement with which of the following countries to supply artificial limbs to some 1000 people free of cost recently?
- Iraq
- Syria
- Libya
- Afghanistan
- Turkey
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
The RBI is all set to launch one billion plastic notes of Rs 10 denomination in a field trial in five cities selected for their geographical and climatic diversity. Which of the following cities is NOT among them?
- Bhubaneswar
- Jaipur
- Mysore
- Kochi
- Chennai
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
Who among the following won women’s singles title at the Rome Masters tennis tournament recently?
- Sara Errani
- Serena Williams
- Victoria Azarenka
- Maria Sharapova
- Venus Williams
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
According to the advance estimates released by the Govt, the foodgrains production is likely to cross ________million
tonnes in 2013-14 in the country. It will be the highest ever production of food grains in the country.
- 257
- 264
- 271
- 288
- 295
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Balkan countries are scrambling to rescue victims and battling landslides as the worst floods hit the area since modern recording began 120 years ago. Which of the following is NOT a Balkan country?
- Bulgaria
- Albania
- Herzegovina
- Bosnia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The Defence Minister of Laos, Douangchay Phichit, and others were killed in a plane crash in the country recently.
Which of the following is the capital city of Laos?
- Phuket
- Pattaya
- Vientiane
- Hanoi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Pawan Chamling has been sworn in as the Chief Minister of which of the following states recently?
- Tripura
- Manipur
- Mizoram
- Sikkim
- Meghalaya
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
With the youngest state of India, Telangana, set to come into being on Jun 2, which of the following banks is expected
to manage the general banking and debt account of the State?
- State Bank of India
- Indian Bank
- Syndicate Bank
- Central Bank of India
- Reserve bank of india
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Which of the following telecommunication companies working in India raised nearly $2 bn from the sale of dual currency
USD and EUR bonds, recently? It is said to be the largest debt issuance by a domestic firm till date.
- Idea
- Bharti Airtel
- Reliance Communication
- Reliance Jio Infocomm
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
Muslim representation hit the worst tally in the history of Indian Parliament in 16th Lok Sabha election held recently. It
stood at just
- 22
- 2) 23
- 49
- 52
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
What is total number to public sector banks (PSBs) operating in India at present?
- 22
- 23
- 25
- 26
- 29
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
Which of the following autonomous region of china witnessed a terrorist attack, recently, which left at least 31 people
killed and 94 injured?
- Guangxi
- Ningxia
- Xinjiang
- Inner Mongolia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The supreme , in its recent decision court held that hiding information can lead to elected candidates’ unseating. As per
the SC, disclosing which of the following information is mandatory?
- Their criminal antecedents
- Their educational qualifications
- Assets and liabilities of their spouse and dependent children
- All the above
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
India’s Jeevan Nedunchezhiyan is associated with which of the following games?
- 1) Tennis
- 2) Badminton
- 3) Squash
- 4) Table tennis
- 5) None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements in the context of the 16th Lok Sabha election and identify the correct statement(s):
- It was the second largest election in the world.
- Average election turnout was around 66.38%, the highest ever in the history of Indian general elections.
- The BJP registered second best tally in Uttar Pradesh only behind INS which had won 83 out of 85 seats in 1984.
- All the above
- Only 2) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed banks to provide loans with tenures of up to ________to exporters to help them ensure capital flows to fulfill long-term contracts, recently. Existing norms allow banks to give loans for up to one
year only.
- 2 years
- 4 years
- 5 years
- 7 years
- 10 years
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
The ousted Egyptian president Hosni Mubarak was sentenced to ________in prison after found guilty of embezzling
public funds, recently?
- one year
- two years
- three years
- four years
- seven years
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The state-owned power equipment maker Bhel has commissioned all the four units of the 520 MW Parbati underground hydro electricity project in the state of ________, recently.
- Himachal Pradesh
- Jammu & Kashmir
- Uttarakhand
- Arunachal Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
Name the Indian-American student who won the prestigious 2014 National Geographic Bee contest carrying a 50,000 US
dollars college scholarship recently?
- Ameya Mujumdar
- Akhil Rekulapelli
- Krish Patel
- Sathwik Karnik
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
The govt has ordered Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) to pay a record ________ in subsidy to help state-owned fuel retailers cover part of the losses they incurred on diesel and cooking fuel in 2013-14.
- Rs 49,421 cr
- Rs 56,384 cr
- Rs 67,021 cr
- Rs 70,772 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
Indian Consulate in which of the following provinces in Afghanistan was attacked by heavily armed gunmen, recently, which security personnel rebutted and all the Indian staff remain unhurt?
- Kandahar
- Ghor
- Herat
- Bamyan
- Badakhshan
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank eased gold import norms recently. Earlier, the central bank had prescribed a formula under which at least ________of every lot of imported gold had to be exclusively used for exports.
- 10 per cent
- 20 per cent
- 25 per cent
- 30 per cent
- 40 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Veteran Madhav Mantri, who died recently, was India’s oldest player of
- Hockey
- Football
- Tennis
- Cricket
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
In which of the following countries, recently, the army seized power in a bloodless coup, suspended the Constitution and declared night curfew after months of anti-govt protests that left the country in limbo?
- Vietnam
- Thailand
- Philippines
- Cambodia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
The results of 16th Lok Sabha election indicate that no party qualify as the Opposition and this could affect appointments to key offices that mandate that the govt consult the LoP. These offices are
- Lokpal
- Chief of armed forces
- Central Vigilance Commissioner
- All the above
- Only 1) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
The committee headed by pj nayak , which submitted its report, recently, pointed out that all PSBs violate Sebi listing norms. The Sebi regulation for listed companies mandates that ________of directors must be independent.
- 20 per cent
- 25 per cent
- 40 per cent
- 50 per cent
- 60 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
Negotiation between India and south African Customs Union (SACU) are in progress. Which of the following is NOT a member of SACU?
- Namibia
- South Africa
- Swaziland
- Lesotho
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
The military of which of the following countries imposed martial law in the country amid a political crisis recently?
- Afghanistan
- Libya
- Vietnam
- Thailand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court banned ‘jallikattu’ (bull fighting) and bullock cart racing in which of the following states recently?
- Karnataka
- Andhra Pradesh
- Tamil Nadu
- Maharashtra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
In a breakthrough, scientists have for the first time discovered a revolutionary technique to turn light into matter. The idea was first theorised by scientists ________in 1934.
- Gregory Breit and John Wheeler
- Albert Einstein
- Max Bom and Wemer Heisenberg
- Paul Dirac and John Bardeen
- Michael Faraday
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
China lashed out at the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) for backing Vietnam over tensions in the
South China Sea recently. Who among the following is the Secretary General of ASEAN at present?
- Phung Quang Thanh
- Ong Keng Yong
- Marty Natalegawa
- Nguyen Tan Dung
- Le Luong Minh
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
In its recent verdict, the of Supreme Court ordered interim stay on iron ore mining in which of the following states by companies whose leases have expired and directed the state govt to consider and dispose of all renewal applications within six months?
- Karnataka
- Goa
- Jharkhand
- Odisha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
Paleontologists have discovered fossils of the largest dinosaur ever to roam the earth in which of the following countries
recently? The creature is believed to be a new species of Titanosaur.
- Egypt
- Argentina
- Chile
- Bolivia
- Paraguay
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
As announced by the Russian President, the country is all set to sign a major gas deal with which of the following countries in order to diversifying gas supply destinations amid tension in ties with the West over Ukraine?
- Kazakhstan
- Pakistan
- India
- China
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
The ace player Rakesh Kumar, who emerged as the top money earner in a recent auction for a league, is associated with which of the following games?
- Kho-kho
- Kabaddi
- Hockey
- Badminton
- Football
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
The term of members of which of the following institutions is co-terminus with the union govt and all its members submit
their resignation after the general elections?
- Election Commission
- Central Vigilance Commission
- Planning Commission
- Finance Commission
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
A beam of uniform strength will have
- same shear force throughout the beam
- same bending moment through-out the beam
- same deflection throughout the beam
- same bending stress at every section along its longitudinal axis
Correct

same bending stress at every section along its longitudinal axis

Incorrect

same bending stress at every section along its longitudinal axis
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
In case of width b and depth d of a simply supported beam which is loaded centrally, are interchanged, the deflection at the center of the beam will be changed in the ratio of
- $\frac{b}{d}$
- $\left(\frac{b}{d}\right)^{2}$
- $\left(\frac{b}{d}\right)^{3}$
- $\left(\frac{d}{b}\right)^{3}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
Which of the following methods gives relatively accurate prediction of population of a town?
- Graphic method
- Incremental method
- Geometric increase method
- Arithmetic increase method
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
Which of the following is likely to result in turbidity in water?
- Bacteria
- Sand particles
- Clay particles
- Calcium Sulphate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
A bridge having its floor supported at the top of structure is called
- through bridge
- submersible bridge
- deck bridge
- floating bridge
Correct

Incorrect
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
A reinforced concrete beam is considered as made up of
- Clad material
- Isotropic material
- Homogeneous material
- Heterogeneous material
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
Which of the following treatments is used to make a building and its contents termite-proof?
- Plastering
- Whitewashing
- Anti-termite treatment
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
Polyvinyl acetates are used as
- solvents
- adhesives
- colouring agents
- hygroscopic substances
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
For a national highway, the minimum formation width is
- 12 m
- 9.5 m
- 7.5 m
- 6 m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
Vacuum brakes are used in
- scooters
- cars
- trucks
- locomotives
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Vane shear test is used for
- measuring the shearing strength of cohesive soil of low shear strength
- measuring the void ratio of sandy soils
- measuring the bearing capacity of soils
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
Gantt chart indicates
- comparison of actual progress with the scheduled progress
- balance of work to be done
- efficiency of project work
- progressive cost of a project
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
Blast furnace slag is
- a heavier product
- non metallic
- used for plaster work
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
During the manipulation test of a soil, when a sample was taken in hand, moistened with water and worked with fingers, it dried quickly leaving only a stain on the finger. It can be concluded that the soil is
- clayey soil
- sandy soil
- silty soil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
The type of joint provided in drawing boards is
- mitre joint
- butt joint
- tongue and groove joint
- dovetail joint
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
The weight of one cubic meter of cement is approximately
- 1000 kg
- 1100 kg
- 1440 kg
- 1680 kg
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
A primary coat for painting work is given to steel surfaces with
- drier only
- red oxide
- oxide of iron
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
The impeller used in mud pumps is
- open type
- semi open type
- surrounded on one side only
- surrounded on both sides
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
For very strong sewage, COD will be
- less than 400 mg/liter
- 1000 mg/liter
- 700 mg/liter
- more than 1500 mg/liter
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
The disadvantage of invar tapes is
- low coefficient of thermal expansion
- creep elongation
- low cost
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
For which type of sewage, the self cleaning velocity of the sewer will be least?
- rounded pebbles (12 mm to 15 mm)
- coarse sand
- fine sand
- fine clay and silt
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
The average liquid content of sewage is usually
- 95 to 99 per cent
- 75 to 80 per cent
- 65 to 75 per cent
- less than 50 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
The magnetic lines of force due to earth are parallel to the surface near
- poles
- equator
- magnetic poles
- Circle of Cancer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
Water glass is
- water free from impurities
- glass made from pure silica
- solution of sodium silicate in water
- water formed by condensation of vapours
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
The minimum slump in concrete for building columns is
- 25 mm
- 50 mm
- 75 mm
- 100 mm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
A mass diagram is used in
- preparation of hydrograph
- planning of excavation of earth work
- tunnel work
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
Which bitumen will be least viscous?
- 44/50
- 50/60
- 70/80
- 80/100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
Which of the following defects occurs in filled timer?
- Heart shakes
- Star shakes
- Cup shakes
- Radial shakes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
The scotia block is provided on
- a wooden step
- on columns carrying inclined loads
- on well foundations
- north light trusses
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
Gun powder can be destroyed by
- scattering on damp soil
- throwing in water
- dissolving in petrol
- mixing with excess of charcoal
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
Shear force diagram for a simply supported beam is shown in figure. From this diagram it can be concluded that
- uniformly distributed load exists between A and B only
- uniformly distributed load exists between C and D only
- uniformly distributed load exists between A and C only
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
Which type of welding process is used for welding of structure?
- Gas welding
- Fusion welding
- Thermic welding
- Arc welding
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
The moment of inertia of elliptical section (major axis D and minor axis B) is given by
- $\frac{\pi}{16}BD^{2}$
- $\frac{\pi}{32}BD^{2}$
- $\frac{\pi}{64}BD$
- $\frac{\pi}{64}BD^{3}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
The product of a blast furnace is
- cooking coal
- cast iron
- pig iron
- steel
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
Carbon steel castings have all the following properties except
- ductility
- toughness
- brittleness
- weldability
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
A single purchase crab has a handle 45 cm long and a drum of 25 cm diameter. The pinion has 30 teeth and spur has 150 teeth. The efficiency of the machine is 75 per cent. If the maximum force that can be applied is 50 Newton, the maximum load that can be lifted, will be
- 1250 N
- 6750 N
- 20250 N
- 13500 N
Correct

Given that $T_{1}=150$

$T_{2}=30$

t = 450mm

r = 125mm

$\eta$ = 75 % , p = 500N

We know that

V.R = $\frac{l}{r}\times \frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}$

= $\frac{450}{125}\times \frac{150}{30}=18$

$\eta =\frac{M.A}{V.R}$

= $\Rightarrow M.A=\eta \times V.R$

$\Rightarrow M.A=\frac{W}{P}\Rightarrow W=M.A\times P$

= 13.5\times 500=6750N

Incorrect

Given that $T_{1}=150$

$T_{2}=30$

t = 450mm

r = 125mm

$\eta$ = 75 % , p = 500N

We know that

V.R = $\frac{l}{r}\times \frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}$

= $\frac{450}{125}\times \frac{150}{30}=18$

$\eta =\frac{M.A}{V.R}$

= $\Rightarrow M.A=\eta \times V.R$

$\Rightarrow M.A=\frac{W}{P}\Rightarrow W=M.A\times P$

= 13.5\times 500=6750N
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
The moment at inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is
- $\frac{Mr^{2}}{12}$
- $\frac{2mr^{2}}{5}$
- $\frac{2mr^{2}}{3}$
- $\frac{2mr^{2}}{24}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
The critical depth of a channel is given by
- $\frac{v}{g}$
- $\frac{v^{2}}{g}$
- $\frac{2v^{2}}{g}$
- $\frac{v^{2}}{2g}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
Dorry testing machine is used for conducting
- attrition test
- abrasion test
- penetration test
- impact test
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
Which of the following devices is used for measuring the rate of flow of liquid in a pipet?
- Pitot tube
- Venturimeter
- Rotameter
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
At point A in a pipe line carrying water the diameter is 1m, the pressure 98 kpa and the velocity of 1m/s. At point B, 2m higher than A, the diameter is 0.5 m and the pressure 20 kpa. The direction of flow would be
- A to B
- B to A
- Cannot be determined
- both (1) and (2)
Correct

Applying Bernoulli theorem in

$E_{A}=\frac{P_{A}}{P_{g}}+\frac{V_{A}}{2g}+Z_{A}$

$\frac{98\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}+\frac{(1)^{2}}{2\times 9.81}+0=10.041J$

$E_{B}=\frac{P_{B}}{P_{g}}+\frac{V_{B}^{2}}{2g}+Z_{B}$

$V_{B}=\frac{A_{A}\times V_{A}}{A_{B}}=\frac{1^{2}\times 1}{(0.5)^{2}}=4m/s$

$E_{B}=\frac{20\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}$

$E_{B}=\frac{20\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}+\frac{(4)^{2}}{(2\times 9.81)}+2$ = 4.85 J

$\therefore$ The direction of the flow would be A to B

Incorrect

Applying Bernoulli theorem in

$E_{A}=\frac{P_{A}}{P_{g}}+\frac{V_{A}}{2g}+Z_{A}$

$\frac{98\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}+\frac{(1)^{2}}{2\times 9.81}+0=10.041J$

$E_{B}=\frac{P_{B}}{P_{g}}+\frac{V_{B}^{2}}{2g}+Z_{B}$

$V_{B}=\frac{A_{A}\times V_{A}}{A_{B}}=\frac{1^{2}\times 1}{(0.5)^{2}}=4m/s$

$E_{B}=\frac{20\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}$

$E_{B}=\frac{20\times 1000}{1000\times 9.81}+\frac{(4)^{2}}{(2\times 9.81)}+2$ = 4.85 J

$\therefore$ The direction of the flow would be A to B
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
Alcohol is commonly used as
- adhesive
- beverage
- antifreeze
- preservative
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
The discharge through a 90 notch is proportional to
- $H^{2}$
- $H^{\frac{3}{5}}$
- $H^{\frac{5}{2}}$
- $H^{\frac{7}{2}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
The gravitational field intensity is maximum at the
- equator
- pole
- center of the earth
- at a height above the surface
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
During the S.H.M. which of the following is conserved?
- Kinetic energy
- Potential energy
- Total energy
- Momentum
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
Sewage system is designed for
- maximum flow only
- minimum flow only
- average flow only
- maximum and minimum flow
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
If two forces of magnitude P each act at an angle 9, their resultant will be 9
- $2P\cos \frac{\theta}{2}$
- $2P\sin\theta$
- $2P\cos\theta$
- $2P\sin \frac{\theta}{2}$
Correct

$F=\sqrt{P^{2}+Q^{2}+2PQ\cos \theta}$

$\because$ P = Q

$\therefore \sqrt{P^{2}+P^{2}+2P\times P\cos \theta}$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}+2P^{2}\cos \theta }$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}(1+\cos \theta)}$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}\left ( 1+2\cos^{2}\frac{\theta}{2}\right)}$

$\sqrt{4P^{2}\cos ^{2}\frac{\theta}{2}}$

$2P\cos \frac{\theta}{2}$

Incorrect

$F=\sqrt{P^{2}+Q^{2}+2PQ\cos \theta}$

$\because$ P = Q

$\therefore \sqrt{P^{2}+P^{2}+2P\times P\cos \theta}$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}+2P^{2}\cos \theta }$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}(1+\cos \theta)}$

$\sqrt{2P^{2}\left ( 1+2\cos^{2}\frac{\theta}{2}\right)}$

$\sqrt{4P^{2}\cos ^{2}\frac{\theta}{2}}$

$2P\cos \frac{\theta}{2}$
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
- 0.25 to 0.35 mm
- 0.35 to 0.60 mm
- 0.60 to 1 mm
- 1 to 1.80 mm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
The unit of kinetic viscosity is given by
- $m^{2}/sec$
- $m^{2}/kg$
- $kg^{2}/sec$
- None of these
Correct

$\frac{Dynamic\: Viscosity}{Kinematic\: Viscosity}=\frac{NS/m^{2}}{Kg/m^{3}}=\frac{\frac{kg.m.sec}{sec^{2}}}{\frac{kg}{m}}=m^{2}/sec$

Incorrect

$\frac{Dynamic\: Viscosity}{Kinematic\: Viscosity}=\frac{NS/m^{2}}{Kg/m^{3}}=\frac{\frac{kg.m.sec}{sec^{2}}}{\frac{kg}{m}}=m^{2}/sec$
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
The direct numerical control machines do not use
- C.P.U.
- software
- punched tape
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
When b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting using rivets of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by
- $\left(1- \frac{b}{d}\right)$
- $\left(1+ \frac{b}{d}\right)$
- $\frac{bd}{b+d}$
- $\frac{b-d}{b+d}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam
- fibres are only stressed but not strained
- fibres suffer maximum strain
- fibers do not undergo strain
- fibers suffer maximum compressive stress
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
Pathogen bacteria can be killed by
- oxidation
- carbonation
- chlorination
- ozonisation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
Which of the following constituents of sewage cannot be removed by screening or skimming?
- grease
- oil
- large suspended matter
- fine suspended matter
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
The ratio of B.O.D. is not governed by
- bacterial population
- pressure of sewage
- atmospheric humidity
- characteristic of sewage
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Sewage sickness can be caused by any of the following conditions EXCEPT
- closed soil pores
- blocked air circulation through soil pores
- scanty rain fall
- anaerobic conditions
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
A bridge constructed to enable a road to pass under another land communication route is called a/an
- floating bridge
- over-bridge
- under bridge
- sub-way
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
Which type of bearing is preferred for bridge span more than 20 m long?
- Cast iron bearing
- Shallow bearing
- Fixed plate bearing
- Rocker bearing
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
Open bridge floor is generally preferred for
- predestrian bridge
- navigable bridge
- roadway bridge
- railway bridge
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
For railway track work, the key commonly used is
- morgan key
- kennedy key
- stuart’s key
- flat key
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
Marshalling yard is
- space where locomotives are parked for routine inspection
- sewage where passenger coach batteries are charged
- space where trains and other loads are received, sorted out, trains formed and dispatched onwards
- an arrangement for reversing the direction of a locomotive
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
Which type of floor would you recommend for factory hall?
- Marble
- Asphalt
- Flagstone
- Tiles
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
Artificial precipitation can be triggered by
- dry ice
- silver iodide
- silver iodide and copper sulphate
- dry ice and sodium hydroxide
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
Which of the following methods cannot be used for improving the bearing capacity of a soil?
- Grouting
- Compacting of soil
- Chemical treatment
- Wetting of soil
Correct

Incorrect
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
Veneering means
- carving out designs on timber planks
- chemically treating timber planks
- a thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
- a large section made by joining smaller pieces
Correct

Incorrect
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
Which of the following is not an assumption in the economic lot size formula?
- The rate of use of the involved items, would be uniform
- Procurement time will be constant
- The entire quantity of ordered lot would be delivered at one time
- The price of the item will rise due to inflation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
Which of the following acts as a base for the paint?
- Lead sulphate
- Refined linseed oil
- Turpentine oil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
Broadly speaking, water is
- 10 times more compressible than steel
- 80 times more compressible than steel
- 80 times less compressible than steel
- 800 times less compressible than steel
Correct

Incorrect
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
The maximum permissible deflection for a gantry girder spanning over 6m, on which an EOT (electric overhead travelling) crane of capacity 200 KN is operating is
- 8 mm
- 10 mm
- 12 mm
- 18 mm
Correct

The maximum permissible deflection as per I.S. code 800, 1984 for overhead travelling and electricity operated crane up to capacity 500 kN
$\frac{Span}{750}=\frac{6\times 1000}{750}=8mm$

Incorrect

The maximum permissible deflection as per I.S. code 800, 1984 for overhead travelling and electricity operated crane up to capacity 500 kN
$\frac{Span}{750}=\frac{6\times 1000}{750}=8mm$
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
If the trace of a load is inside the Kern of the section of a column, the stresses are
- of the same sign at all points in the section
- of different signs inside and outside
- of maximum value at the centroid of the section
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
Barium sulphate is widely used as a constraint for the paints. From the above statement it can be concluded that
- Barium sulphate does not react with thinner of the paint
- Barium sulphate is available in many colours
- Barium sulphate is non-crystalline
- Barium sulphate is cheaper than the commonly used materials for paints
Correct

Incorrect
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
If the depth of a beam carrying an isolated load at the center is doubled, the deflection of the beam at midspan will change by a factor of
- $\frac{1}{6}$
- $\frac{1}{4}$
- $\frac{1}{2}$
- 2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
The maximum negative bending moment in case of fixed beam carrying uniformly distributed load is at
- mid span
- 1/3rd of the span
- 1/4th of the span
- Supports
Correct

Incorrect
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
Design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on
- Guest’s theory
- Rankine’s theory
- St. Venant’s theory
- Von Mises theory
Correct

Incorrect
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
For ductile materials, the most appropriate failure theory is
- maximum shear stress theory
- maximum principal stress theory
- maximum principal strain theory
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
Which of the following materials has high scrap value?
- Carbon
- Copper
- Mica
- Semiconductor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Which of the following can have positive or negative charge?
- Electron
- Neutron
- Atom
- Ion
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
When a and Young’s modulus of elasticity E remain constant, the energy absorbing capacity of part subject to dynamic forces, is a function of its
- length
- cross-section
- volume
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
Under axial compression the limit state of collapse assumes the maximum value of compression strain. The maximum value is
- 0.1 %
- 0.2 %
- 0.3 %
- 2 %
Correct

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load, the deflection of the spring is directly proportional to
- Modulus of rigidity of the spring material
- Diameter of spring wire
- Mean diameter of the spring
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
In a thin long closed cylindrical container, the fluid pressure induces
- only hoop stress
- only longitudinal stress
- (3) longitudinal stress equal to twice the hoop stress longitudinal stress equal to twice the hoop stress
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
Which of the following represents density of a fluid?
- $\frac{Specific\: gravity}{Gravity}$
- $\frac{Surface\: tension\: force}{Hydrostatic\: pressure}$
- $\frac{Dynamic\: Viscosity}{Kinematic\: Viscosity}$
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
Which pump is different from the remaining?
- Simple pump
- Plunger pump
- Piston pump
- Gear pump
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
Contour farming is usually practised in
- plain areas
- desert areas
- hilly areas
- water logged areas
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
A cone penetration test was carried out on a sample of soil with the following results

Cone Penetration (in mm) Moisture content

16.1 50.0

17.5 52.2

19.3 54.1

21.3 57.0

22.6 58.2

The liquid level of soil will be nearly
- 30 per cent
- 40 per cent
- 50 per cent
- 60 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
The polar moment of inertia of an equilateral triangle of side a is given by
- $\frac{a^{3}}{6}$
- $\frac{a^{4}}{6}$
- $\frac{a^{4}}{16}$
- $\frac{a^{4}}{16\sqrt{3}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
One joule is same as
- 1Nm
- 10 Nm
- 100 Nm
- k Nm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
When the spring of a watch is wound, it possesses
- potential energy
- translational energy
- strain energy
- kinetic energy
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
A column with maximum equivalent length has
- one end fixed and other end free
- one end fixed and other end hinged
- both ends fixed
- both ends hinged
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
B.O.D. of safe drinking water should be
- 100
- 50
- less than 10
- 0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
Which of the following is used for changing the directions of the engines?
- Scotch blocks
- Turn table
- None of these
- Flag station
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
The plastic limit exists in
- sandy soil
- gravel soil
- clay
- salty soil
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
In case of asbestos, fiber is in the range of
- 0.1 to 1%
- 1 to 5%
- 15 to 20%
- 20 to 25%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
Using the moment area method, determine the slope and deflection at the free end of the cantilever shown in figure.
- $\frac{WL^{3}}{3EI}$
- $\frac{WL^{3}}{6EI}$
- $\frac{WL^{2}}{3EI}$
- $\frac{WL}{6EI}$
Correct

According to Mohar's first theorem $\theta _{B}$

$\theta _{B}-\theta _{A}=\frac{WL}{EI}\times\frac{L}{2}$

But $\theta _{A}$ = 0

$\therefore \theta _{B}=\frac{WL}{EI}$

Applying Mohar's second theorem about A(figure III) .

We have

AA' = $\left [\frac{WL}{EI}\times \frac{L}{2}\right]\frac{L}{3}$

and AB + AA' = $L.\theta _{B}$

$\therefore \Delta _{B}=\frac{WL^{2}}{2EI}\times L-\frac{WL^{3}}{6EI}=\frac{WL^{3}}{3EI}$

Incorrect

According to Mohar's first theorem $\theta _{B}$

$\theta _{B}-\theta _{A}=\frac{WL}{EI}\times\frac{L}{2}$

But $\theta _{A}$ = 0

$\therefore \theta _{B}=\frac{WL}{EI}$

Applying Mohar's second theorem about A(figure III) .

We have

AA' = $\left [\frac{WL}{EI}\times \frac{L}{2}\right]\frac{L}{3}$

and AB + AA' = $L.\theta _{B}$

$\therefore \Delta _{B}=\frac{WL^{2}}{2EI}\times L-\frac{WL^{3}}{6EI}=\frac{WL^{3}}{3EI}$
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
Indian railway system is divided into
- six zones
- sixteen zones
- three zones
- eight zones
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
A cross-over occurs between two parallel M.G. tracks of same crossing number 1 in 12 with straight intermediate portion between the reverse curve. The clear distance between the tracks is 300 cm. Find the intermediate straight distance and overall length of the crossing.
- 71.96 m
- 81.23 m
- 96.25 m
- 56.52 m
Correct

Given that N = 12 , $\alpha =4^{\circ}46'$ , G = 1

We have

B = N(P - G $\sec \alpha$ )

12(3 - $1\times \sec 4^{\circ}46'$ ) = 23.96m

$\therefore$ L = B + 4 GN

= $23.96+4\times 1\times 12$ = 23.96 + 48 = 71 . 96m

Incorrect

Given that N = 12 , $\alpha =4^{\circ}46'$ , G = 1

We have

B = N(P - G $\sec \alpha$ )

12(3 - $1\times \sec 4^{\circ}46'$ ) = 23.96m

$\therefore$ L = B + 4 GN

= $23.96+4\times 1\times 12$ = 23.96 + 48 = 71 . 96m
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Hydrographic survey deals with the mapping of
- large water bodies
- rainfall data
- wave movement
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
Which of the following devices is used for measuring the velocity of flow?
- Pitot tube
- Venturimeter
- Rotameter
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
The resultant of two forces A and B acting at an angle a is
- A + B
- $\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}}$
- $\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2AB\sin\alpha}$
- $\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2AB\cos\alpha}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
A particle is performing Simple Harmonic Motion. If its maximum velocity is 7.5m/sec and its maximum acceleration is 12m/sec2, the frequency of motion would be
- $\frac{16}{\pi}$ Hz
- $\frac{4}{\pi}$ Hz
- $\frac{2}{\pi}$ Hz
- $\frac{1}{\pi}$ Hz
Correct

$\alpha _{max}=\omega ^{2}r$ and $V _{max}=\omega r$

$\omega =\frac{\alpha _{max}}{V_{max}}=\frac{\omega ^{2}r}{r\omega}=\frac{12}{1.5}$ = 8 rad/sec

Frequency of motion = $\frac{\omega}{2\pi}=\frac{8}{2\pi}=\frac{4}{\pi}$ Hz

Incorrect

$\alpha _{max}=\omega ^{2}r$ and $V _{max}=\omega r$

$\omega =\frac{\alpha _{max}}{V_{max}}=\frac{\omega ^{2}r}{r\omega}=\frac{12}{1.5}$ = 8 rad/sec

Frequency of motion = $\frac{\omega}{2\pi}=\frac{8}{2\pi}=\frac{4}{\pi}$ Hz

person	Industry	Stone
Arun	Chemical/Oil	Topaz
Mala	Plastic	Sapphire
Vimla	Hardware	Diamond
Suresh	Rubber	Ruby
Ramesh	Leather	Emerald
Varun	Chemical/Oil	Gold

person	Industry	Stone
Arun	Chemical/Oil	Topaz
Mala	Plastic	Sapphire
Vimla	Hardware	Diamond
Suresh	Rubber	Ruby
Ramesh	Leather	Emerald
Varun	Chemical/Oil	Gold

person	Industry	Stone
Arun	Chemical/Oil	Topaz
Mala	Plastic	Sapphire
Vimla	Hardware	Diamond
Suresh	Rubber	Ruby
Ramesh	Leather	Emerald
Varun	Chemical/Oil	Gold

Student	College	Subject
A	Z	Sociology
B	Z	English
C	Y	History
D	X	Psychology
E	Z	Geography
F	X	Economics
G	Y	Accountancy

person	Industry	Stone
Arun	Chemical/Oil	Topaz
Mala	Plastic	Sapphire
Vimla	Hardware	Diamond
Suresh	Rubber	Ruby
Ramesh	Leather	Emerald
Varun	Chemical/Oil	Gold

person	Industry	Stone
Arun	Chemical/Oil	Topaz
Mala	Plastic	Sapphire
Vimla	Hardware	Diamond
Suresh	Rubber	Ruby
Ramesh	Leather	Emerald
Varun	Chemical/Oil	Gold

Please comment on Junior Engineer Civil Practice Paper 2 - Time 2 Hours

7 Comments

Wiz on March 5, 2024 at 5:09 am

gravitational field intensity is maximum - at pole
Reply
Muzzammil on September 10, 2023 at 7:58 am

Q.198 answer is wrong
Pitot tube measures velocity not venturimeter
Reply
Saiyyed akbar on March 24, 2019 at 2:54 pm

No density of cement is 1440 kg/m3 not 1000kg/m3
Reply
Ashish on February 22, 2019 at 5:03 am

1440 is right
Reply
shashi bhuse on February 11, 2019 at 5:12 pm

Please check this answer
Reply
Aniket on February 9, 2019 at 2:41 pm

1m3 cement = 1440 kg
Reply
Aftab on January 8, 2019 at 5:40 am

Ques No. - 116 Answer Is Wrong
Actual Ans Is 1440kg/cum

How is possible 1000kg/cum
Reply

Average score
Your score

Cone Penetration (in mm)	Moisture content
16.1	50.0
17.5	52.2
19.3	54.1
21.3	57.0
22.6	58.2

Junior Engineer Civil Practice Paper 2 - Time 2 Hours

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