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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 400
1. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following States has its own criminal Procedure Code?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 400
2. Question
1 pointsUnder the Scheme of Criminal Procedure non-cognizable offences are
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 400
3. Question
1 pointsA Metropolitan magistrate, has the power to pass sentence, as provided under section 29 of Cr PC
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 4 of 400
4. Question
1 pointsIt is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of his arrest, under
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 400
5. Question
1 pointsA search warrant is a written authority given to a police officer or any other person for the search of any place
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 6 of 400
6. Question
1 pointsSection 93(3) of Cr PC provides that no Magistrate other than a District Magistrate or Chief Judicial Magistrate shall issue warrant of search for document, parcel or other thing in the custody of postal & telegraph authority. If any Magistrate not so specified issues such a warrant
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 7 of 400
7. Question
1 pointsDelay in despatching the FIR to the Magistrate under section 157 of Cr PC
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 400
8. Question
1 pointsA trail on a police report initiated by the breach of the mandatory provision relating to investigation,
Correct
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Question 9 of 400
9. Question
1 pointsStatement made under section 161, Cr PC. during investigation of cross-case is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 400
10. Question
1 pointsA joint statement of several witnesses, recorded during investigation
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 400
11. Question
1 pointsThe word 'statement' within the meaning of section 162 of Cr PC, means
Correct
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Question 12 of 400
12. Question
1 pointsMaintenance of a case diary by an investigating officer is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 13 of 400
13. Question
1 pointsA confessional statement under section 164 of Cr PC can be recorded
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 14 of 400
14. Question
1 pointsUnder section 172 of Cr PC, it is mandatory for every investigating officer to maintain a case diary. The said case diary can be used, during trial
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 400
15. Question
1 pointsIn a case triable by a Magistrate as a summons case, the investigation can not be continued under section 167(5) of Cr PC.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 400
16. Question
1 pointsSection 125 of Cr PC is applicable to
Correct
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Question 17 of 400
17. Question
1 pointsUnder the scheme of Cr PC the original jurisdiction to take cognizance of an offence is vested in
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 400
18. Question
1 pointsThe provisions of section 195 of Cr PC require
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 400
19. Question
1 pointsCompensation can be ordered to be paid under section 357 of Cr PC
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 20 of 400
20. Question
1 pointsThe FIR can be quashed in the exercise of inherent powers by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 400
21. Question
1 pointsThe Fundamental principle of criminal liability in the maxim "actus non facit reum mens sit rea".The maxim was developed by :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 22 of 400
22. Question
1 pointsIn case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 400
23. Question
1 pointsThe maximum 'ignorantia juris non excusat' means
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 400
24. Question
1 pointsIrresistible impulse is a defence
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 400
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is correct
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 400
26. Question
1 pointsThe right to private defence is based on the natural instinct of
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 400
27. Question
1 pointsThe right to private defence is available with respect to
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 400
28. Question
1 pointsIn case of kidnapping & abduction the right of private defence extends voluntarily causing
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 400
29. Question
1 pointsChapter V of Indian Penal Code deals with
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 400
30. Question
1 pointsX ordered his employee Y to beat Z. Y refuses.Now
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 400
31. Question
1 pointsFor application of section 149 of IPC
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 400
32. Question
1 pointsMurder has been defined
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 400
33. Question
1 points'A' knows that 'B' is suffering from a disease in his head and also knows that if a fist blow is given to 'B' on his head, it is likely to cause his death.Knowledge it 'A' gives a fist blow to B on his head and caused death of 'B' .'A' is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 400
34. Question
1 pointsculpable homicide is causing death
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 400
35. Question
1 pointsTwo ladies of young age, A and B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which 'A' inflicts injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 400
36. Question
1 pointsRobbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 400
37. Question
1 pointsThe subject matter of theft
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 400
38. Question
1 pointschapter XX of IPC deals with
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 400
39. Question
1 pointsRemoval of ornaments from body of one after causing his heath is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 400
40. Question
1 pointsUnder the Indian Penal Code who among the following is liable for committing theft
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 400
41. Question
1 pointsIndian Evidence Act was drafted by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 400
42. Question
1 points'Self-regarding' statements
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 43 of 400
43. Question
1 pointsQuestion of mode of Proof is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 400
44. Question
1 pointsUnder section 8 of Evidence Act
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 400
45. Question
1 pointsIdentification of a suspect by photo is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 400
46. Question
1 pointsAdmission bind the maker
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 400
47. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following admission is no evidence
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 400
48. Question
1 pointsCommunication made 'without prejudice' are protected
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 400
49. Question
1 pointsA confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 400
50. Question
1 pointsA confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence Act
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 400
51. Question
1 pointsFacts discovered in consequences of a joint information
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 52 of 400
52. Question
1 pointsDeclaration in course of business are admissible
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 400
53. Question
1 pointsFacts which need not be proved by the parties include
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 400
54. Question
1 pointsRe-examination in chief or re-examination
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 400
55. Question
1 pointsWhat essential change was made in section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 vide Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,2005?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 400
56. Question
1 pointsUnder proviso 4 to section 92 of Evidence Act, oral evidence is admissible in cases
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 400
57. Question
1 points'Burden of proof' means
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 58 of 400
58. Question
1 pointsThe deciding factor under section 112 of Evidence Act is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 400
59. Question
1 pointsEstopple in section 115 of Evidence Act
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 400
60. Question
1 pointsHusband & Wife both are competent witness for & against each other
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 400
61. Question
1 pointsThe East India Company was established by the British Crown in the year
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 62 of 400
62. Question
1 pointsWhat is the meaning of 'lex loci'
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 63 of 400
63. Question
1 pointsThe British, conceded the demand for partition of India under
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 64 of 400
64. Question
1 pointsIn the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residency powers were given to
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 65 of 400
65. Question
1 pointsIn which case, it was held by the supreme Court that 'Preamble is the basic feature of the constitution' ?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 66 of 400
66. Question
1 pointsThe Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 67 of 400
67. Question
1 pointsIndia has borrowed the schemes of federation i.e, "Union Of States" from which country?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 68 of 400
68. Question
1 pointsThe expression 'every person' in Article 5 includes
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 69 of 400
69. Question
1 pointsThe Fundamental rights secured to the individual are
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 70 of 400
70. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not State for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 71 of 400
71. Question
1 pointsAfter the Mandal case. it has been observed that ''The poisonous weed of Casteism has been replanted where it will trouble us a thousand years: each age will have to consider it"'
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 72 of 400
72. Question
1 pointsThe expression 'minority' in Article 30 means any community which is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 73 of 400
73. Question
1 pointsThe following are not included in the right to personal liberty
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 74 of 400
74. Question
1 pointsProhibition of employment of children of below..... years is provided under Article 24.
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 75 of 400
75. Question
1 pointsThe Legal power or position of the President Of India is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 76 of 400
76. Question
1 pointsThe Governor also acts as an agent of the Central Government in the State. When he Act in that capacity, he is responsible to
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 77 of 400
77. Question
1 pointsThe clemency of capital punishment is granted by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 78 of 400
78. Question
1 pointsRajya Sabha has term of
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 79 of 400
79. Question
1 pointsMembership of Legislative Assembly can vary between
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 80 of 400
80. Question
1 pointsThe Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the :
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 81 of 400
81. Question
1 pointsUnder the provisions of Civil Procedure Code plea of adverse possession is a defence available
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 82 of 400
82. Question
1 pointsJudgement under section 2(9) means
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 83 of 400
83. Question
1 pointsUnder the principle of res-subjudice
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 84 of 400
84. Question
1 pointsA decision or finding given by a court or a tribunal without jurisdiction
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 85 of 400
85. Question
1 pointsA person who institutes a suit in foreign court, and claims a decree in personam, after the judgement is pronounced against him
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 86 of 400
86. Question
1 pointsA suit for damages for breach of contract can be filed, at a place
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 87 of 400
87. Question
1 pointsThe court may impose a fine for dafault upon a person required to give evidence or to produce documents directed under section 30(b) of CPC, and such fine as per section 32(c) not to exceed
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 88 of 400
88. Question
1 pointsIn case of failure of filling the written statement within thirty days, the defendant can be allowed to file the same on such other day specified by the court for reasons recorded in writting
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 89 of 400
89. Question
1 pointsSeveral persons can be joined as plaintiffs, in cases
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 90 of 400
90. Question
1 pointsCourt can direct the parties to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution under
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 91 of 400
91. Question
1 pointsList of witness, after settlement of issues, must be filed within
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 92 of 400
92. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of court
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 93 of 400
93. Question
1 pointsGround for setting aside interrogatories contained in Order XI, Rule 7 of CPC are
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 94 of 400
94. Question
1 pointsIssues can be altered
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 95 of 400
95. Question
1 pointsRule of Damdupat is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 96 of 400
96. Question
1 pointsAttachment before judgment under Order XXXVIII, Rule 5 of CPC can be in respect or
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 97 of 400
97. Question
1 pointsIf anyone interferes with the possession of the receiver appointed under Order XI of CPC, contempt proceedings against such a person can be initiated by
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 98 of 400
98. Question
1 pointsA person can be appointed as guadian under Order XXXII, Rule 4 of CPC
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 99 of 400
99. Question
1 pointsDoctrine of restitution is contained in
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 100 of 400
100. Question
1 pointsThe proof and admissibility of the documents which are field along, with the affidavit, under Order XVIII, Rule 4(1) of CPC shall
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 101 of 400
101. Question
1 pointsAn agreement enforceable at law is a
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 102 of 400
102. Question
1 pointsEvery promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 103 of 400
103. Question
1 pointsA proposal stands revoked
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 104 of 400
104. Question
1 pointsCompetency to contract relates to
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 105 of 400
105. Question
1 pointsConsiderations & objects are unlawful where it is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 106 of 400
106. Question
1 pointsParties are not competent to contract if any of them is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 107 of 400
107. Question
1 pointsAn agreement shall be void on account of
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 108 of 400
108. Question
1 pointsA contract not specifying the place of performance
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 109 of 400
109. Question
1 pointsA contract, performance of which becomes impossible or unlawful becomes
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 110 of 400
110. Question
1 pointsUnder the Indian Contract Act consideration
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 111 of 400
111. Question
1 pointsWhere there are two courts which would normally have the jurisdiction, an agreement to file suit in one of those courts alone, is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 112 of 400
112. Question
1 pointsA clause in the other tender authorising the party inviting tenders to terminate the contract at any time for future supplies
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 113 of 400
113. Question
1 pointsAn offer was sent by post, the acceptor wrote 'accepted' on the letter, put it in his drawer & forgot about it. The tansaction is a
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 114 of 400
114. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not relevant in determining of quantum of damage
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 115 of 400
115. Question
1 pointsBailment involves
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 116 of 400
116. Question
1 pointsPeriod of limitation for a suit against pawnee to recover the thing pledged is
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 117 of 400
117. Question
1 pointsAgent is a
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 118 of 400
118. Question
1 pointsAny act is done, without the authority or knowledge of a person on behalf of that person, that person
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 119 of 400
119. Question
1 pointsWhere the transaction was not void and not contrary to any provision of law under section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, the ingredients of sections 41 & 43 of the Transfer of Property Act. Would not be applicable, as laid down in
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 120 of 400
120. Question
1 pointsA entrusts B with negotiable instruments endorsed in blank. B sells them to C in violation of private orders from A. The sale is
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Question 121 of 400
121. Question
1 pointsBefore the commencement of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. the transfer of immovable properties in India were governed by the
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Question 122 of 400
122. Question
1 pointsThe Bill on Transfer of Property was referred to
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Question 123 of 400
123. Question
1 pointsThe Transfer of Property Act, 1882, came into effect from
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Question 124 of 400
124. Question
1 pointsUnder the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, registered pertains to
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Question 125 of 400
125. Question
1 pointsAccording to section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act,1882, living person includes :
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Question 126 of 400
126. Question
1 pointsUnder the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act,1882
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Question 127 of 400
127. Question
1 pointsNo transfer of Property can operate to create an interest which is to take effect after the life time of one or more persons living at the date of such transfer.These provisions come under:
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Question 128 of 400
128. Question
1 pointsProvision of longer period in the matter of accumulation of property under section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 amounts to
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Question 129 of 400
129. Question
1 pointsA transfer property to B for life and after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors of them. C dies during life of B,D survives B. At B's death the property:
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Question 130 of 400
130. Question
1 pointsIn the Transfer of Property Act.1882,sections 33 to 37 apply to both immovable and movable property whereas sections 38 to 53 apply to:
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Question 131 of 400
131. Question
1 pointsWithin the meaning of section 40, of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the purchaser at a court sale:
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Question 132 of 400
132. Question
1 pointsSection 41 of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 applies to voluntary transfers and has no application to :
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Question 133 of 400
133. Question
1 pointsThe principle of lis pendens embodied in section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 pertains to :
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Question 134 of 400
134. Question
1 pointsThe term creaditor used in section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 includes:
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Question 135 of 400
135. Question
1 pointsSale is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised. This definition refers to:
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Question 136 of 400
136. Question
1 pointsThe object of section 57 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is to:
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Question 137 of 400
137. Question
1 pointsMortgagor's right to inspection and production of document is provided in
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Question 138 of 400
138. Question
1 pointsSection 63 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, lays down that where the mortgaged property in possession of mortgagee has received any accession, the mortgagor upon redemption in entitled to
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Question 139 of 400
139. Question
1 pointsDefault in payment of interest by the mortgagor does not accelerates the mortgagee's right to foreclosure unless :
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Question 140 of 400
140. Question
1 pointsWhere co-judgment debtors are in the position of joint promisors, each is
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Question 141 of 400
141. Question
1 pointsThe Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force on
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Question 142 of 400
142. Question
1 pointsIn Sale of Goods Act several provisions of the Indian Contract Act have been re-tained
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Question 143 of 400
143. Question
1 pointsThe term ''goods'' in the sale of goods means
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Question 144 of 400
144. Question
1 pointsThe definition of ''the documents of title to goods'' given in section 2(4) of the sale of Goods Act,1930, is
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Question 145 of 400
145. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following document is a document of title to goods
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Question 146 of 400
146. Question
1 points'Goods' within the meaning of section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 includes
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Question 147 of 400
147. Question
1 pointsWho is 'Insolvent', has been stated in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 under
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Question 148 of 400
148. Question
1 pointsThe word ''property'' in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 means
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Question 149 of 400
149. Question
1 pointsContract of Sale under section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 comprises of
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Question 150 of 400
150. Question
1 pointsIn a conditional contract of sale of goods under section 4 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the conditions
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Question 151 of 400
151. Question
1 pointsIn case of absence of transfer of title or registration, the purchaser
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Question 152 of 400
152. Question
1 pointsWhere a third party is prevented from making the valuation of goods, as price to be paid by the buyer to the seller, by a party to the agreement, under section 10 of the Sale of Goods Act,1930, the other party has a right to
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Question 153 of 400
153. Question
1 pointsIn a merchantile contact, stipulation as to time
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Question 154 of 400
154. Question
1 pointsWhat is true of the Warranty for quite enjoyment provided under section 14 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
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Question 155 of 400
155. Question
1 pointsFor availing the exception under section 16(1) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the buyer must make known to the seller the particular purpose for which the goods are required
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Question 156 of 400
156. Question
1 pointsIn case of Sale of unascertained goods, under section 18 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 the property in goods passes
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Question 157 of 400
157. Question
1 pointsThe rule of passing of property as enumerated in section 20 of the Sale of Goods Act, the property in goods passes to the buyer, when
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Question 158 of 400
158. Question
1 pointsBy the agreement between the parties
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Question 159 of 400
159. Question
1 pointsWhere the contract for the Sale of Goods provides for delivery 'ex-ship', by virtue of section 36(5) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the seller
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Question 160 of 400
160. Question
1 pointsThe rule enunciated under section 40 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930,applies to
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Question 161 of 400
161. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following sections of partnership Act bars the suits to enforce rights from contracts, if partnership firm is not registered?
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Question 162 of 400
162. Question
1 pointsThe Indian Partnership Act, 1932 came into force on
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Question 163 of 400
163. Question
1 pointsPrior to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the law of partnership was provided in
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Question 164 of 400
164. Question
1 pointsAn act to be called on 'act of a firm', within the meaning of section 2(a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 is
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Question 165 of 400
165. Question
1 pointsThe term 'business' has been defined under
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Question 166 of 400
166. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following enactments insist for a written agreement of partnership
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Question 167 of 400
167. Question
1 pointsThe relation of partnership arises from contract and not from status, has been prescribed under
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Question 168 of 400
168. Question
1 pointsFor the purposes of income-tax, a partnership firm
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Question 169 of 400
169. Question
1 pointsSection 5 of the Indian Partnership Act,1932 does not apply to
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Question 170 of 400
170. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is an exception to the partnership at will, as provided under section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act,1932
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Question 171 of 400
171. Question
1 pointsGeneral duties of partners have been laid down in
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Question 172 of 400
172. Question
1 pointsThe rule of majority contained in section 12(c) of the Indian Partnership Act,1932 is applicable in
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Question 173 of 400
173. Question
1 pointsAn agreement to carry on business in partnership in the future creates a partnership
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Question 174 of 400
174. Question
1 pointsThe members of an illegal partnership
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Question 175 of 400
175. Question
1 pointsA partner has a right to have access to all the books of accounts etc, of the firm
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Question 176 of 400
176. Question
1 pointsThe partners entitled to interest on the capital subscribed, such interest is payable
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Question 177 of 400
177. Question
1 pointsOrdinarily on the overdrawings by the partners from the firm
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Question 178 of 400
178. Question
1 pointsAn action for the indemnity against a partner can be brought by
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Question 179 of 400
179. Question
1 pointsWhen the property is purchased out of the partnership funds, but in the name of an individual partner, it
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Question 180 of 400
180. Question
1 pointsSince the partnership property vests in all the partners and every partner has an interest in the property of the partnership, during the subsistence of partnership
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Question 181 of 400
181. Question
1 pointsIn the Registration Act immovable property has been defined
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Question 182 of 400
182. Question
1 pointsA growing tree, drawing substance from the soil, is
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Question 183 of 400
183. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is an immovable property
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Question 184 of 400
184. Question
1 pointsWhich is not an immovable property under the Registration Act
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Question 185 of 400
185. Question
1 pointsA Muslim gift dead is
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Question 186 of 400
186. Question
1 pointsA non-testamentary document is one
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Question 187 of 400
187. Question
1 pointsIn case of mortgage by deposit of title deeds
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Question 188 of 400
188. Question
1 pointsSection 17(2) of the Registration Act carves out an exception to
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Question 189 of 400
189. Question
1 pointsA Registering officer may refuse the registration of the documents
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Question 190 of 400
190. Question
1 pointsThe lease covered under section 17(1)(d) is
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Question 191 of 400
191. Question
1 pointsThe provisions of section 21 of the Registration Act are
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Question 192 of 400
192. Question
1 pointsDelay in presentation of a document for registration can be condoned upto
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Question 193 of 400
193. Question
1 pointsUnder section 25 of the Registration Act, who has the power to condone the delay in presentation of document
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Question 194 of 400
194. Question
1 pointsA dead of adoption requires
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Question 195 of 400
195. Question
1 pointsRegistration of a document, presented by a person who is not a proper person within the meaning of section 32 is
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Question 196 of 400
196. Question
1 pointsA document, registered without being presented by a proper under section 23 A
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Question 197 of 400
197. Question
1 pointsUnder the Registration Act, a registered document operates
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Question 198 of 400
198. Question
1 pointsAn unregistered document can be admitted in evidence as regards an existence of contract in a
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Question 199 of 400
199. Question
1 pointsThe Indian Registration Act, 1908, is applicable to the whole of India except
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Question 200 of 400
200. Question
1 pointswhich of the following is an immovable property within the meaning of section 2(6) of the Indian Registration Act,1908
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Question 201 of 400
201. Question
1 pointsReadiness may mean capacity of plaintiff to perform contract which includes
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Question 202 of 400
202. Question
1 pointsSpecific relief can be granted for
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Question 203 of 400
203. Question
1 pointsA suit for possession of an immovable property, under section 6 of Specific Relief Act can be filed within
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Question 204 of 400
204. Question
1 pointsBurden of prove adverse possession is on
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Question 205 of 400
205. Question
1 pointsAn order or decree under section 6 of the Act is
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Question 206 of 400
206. Question
1 pointsA suit for possession under section 5 of Specific Relief Act, can be filed within
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Question 207 of 400
207. Question
1 pointsFor application of section 7 of the Act, the goods must be
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Question 208 of 400
208. Question
1 pointssection 8 can be invoked
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Question 209 of 400
209. Question
1 pointsWhat is true of Specific Relief Act
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Question 210 of 400
210. Question
1 pointsUnder section 10 which of the following can be specifically enforced
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Question 211 of 400
211. Question
1 pointsWithin the meaning of section 15 of the Specific Relief Act,1963, the assignee falls
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Question 212 of 400
212. Question
1 pointsRemedy of rectification available under section 26 relats to
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Question 213 of 400
213. Question
1 pointsCancellation under section 31 can be claimed
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Question 214 of 400
214. Question
1 pointsSection 34 sanctions
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Question 215 of 400
215. Question
1 pointsDamages in suits for injunctions cannot be granted
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Question 216 of 400
216. Question
1 pointsSection 10 of the Specific Relief Act,1963, applies to
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Question 217 of 400
217. Question
1 pointsJurisdiction of the court to enforce specific performance of contract is
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Question 218 of 400
218. Question
1 pointsSpecific performance of a contract
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Question 219 of 400
219. Question
1 pointsIn a suit for injunction, under section 40 of the Specific Relief Act,1963,damages
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Question 220 of 400
220. Question
1 pointsA contracts made by a trustee in excess of his powers or in breach of trust
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Question 221 of 400
221. Question
1 pointsAll instruments for the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, shall be deemed to be made with reference to
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Question 222 of 400
222. Question
1 pointsUnder the Limitation Act,1963, the court has no...... power, outside the Act, to relieve a litigant from the provisions of the Act
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Question 223 of 400
223. Question
1 pointsThe Limitation Act, 1963, applies to
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Question 224 of 400
224. Question
1 pointsA suitor, under section 3, Limitation Act, 1963
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Question 225 of 400
225. Question
1 pointsFor the purposes of section 3, Limitation Act, 1963, limitation is checked
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Question 226 of 400
226. Question
1 pointsA time bared debt can be claimed
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Question 227 of 400
227. Question
1 pointsSection 4, Limitation Act, 1963 applies
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Question 228 of 400
228. Question
1 pointsFor condonation of delay under section 5, Limitation Act, 1963
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Question 229 of 400
229. Question
1 pointsSection 6 of Limitation Act applies to
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Question 230 of 400
230. Question
1 pointsPeriod of limitation stands extended , by virtue of section 6 of Limitation Act for a maximum period of
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Question 231 of 400
231. Question
1 pointsTime which has begun to run can be stopped in case of
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Question 232 of 400
232. Question
1 pointsLimitation for filing an appeal commences from
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Question 233 of 400
233. Question
1 pointsUnder section 13 of Limitation Act, the time is excluded
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Question 234 of 400
234. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not required for a valid acknowledgement
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Question 235 of 400
235. Question
1 pointsIn England, the law of limitation can be
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Question 236 of 400
236. Question
1 pointsLaw of limitation has to be strictly constructed. In view of the same section 5 of Limitation Act has to be construed
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Question 237 of 400
237. Question
1 pointsAcknowledgment after the period of limitation
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Question 238 of 400
238. Question
1 pointsPeriod of limitation for suits relating to accounts is
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Question 239 of 400
239. Question
1 pointsCondemnation of delay under section 5 of Limitation Act
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Question 240 of 400
240. Question
1 pointsA suit for possession of a hereditary office under Article 107 of the Schedule, can be filed within the period of limitation of
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Question 241 of 400
241. Question
1 pointsIn case relating to arbitration the arbitral award was remitted under section 16 of the Arbitration Act,1940, The date of award was 1st June,1992, The Arbitration and Conciliation Act came into force on 22 August, 1996. The validity of award can be challenged under the.
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Question 242 of 400
242. Question
1 pointsWhich among the following options is the main purpose of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
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Question 243 of 400
243. Question
1 pointsAn arbitral award made under part I of the arbitration and conciliation Act, 1996, shall be considered as a
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Question 244 of 400
244. Question
1 pointsFinality to arbitral awards within meaning of section 35 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall
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Question 245 of 400
245. Question
1 pointsAn arbitral award becomes enforceable when
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Question 246 of 400
246. Question
1 pointsStatutory arbitration is :
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Question 247 of 400
247. Question
1 pointsA party within the meaning of section 2, Arbitration & Conciliation Act, 1996 means
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Question 248 of 400
248. Question
1 pointsThe arbitral tribunal has the jurisdiction to rule
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Question 249 of 400
249. Question
1 pointsA party shall be precluded from raising the question of jurisdiction of arbitral tribunal
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Question 250 of 400
250. Question
1 pointsThe members of Statutory Arbitral Tribunals are appointed by :
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Question 251 of 400
251. Question
1 pointsWhich article of the Constitution of India authorises the government to enter into an arbitration agreement
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Question 252 of 400
252. Question
1 pointsOnce an application under section 8, Arbitration and Conciliation Act for referring the parties to arbitration is allowed, the proceeding in which the application was made are liable to be
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Question 253 of 400
253. Question
1 pointsThe Provision of section 8, Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 are
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Question 254 of 400
254. Question
1 pointsWhile considering the grant of interim measures, the Court may see whether :
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Question 255 of 400
255. Question
1 pointsThe court has a jurisdiction to entertain an application for interim measures :
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Question 256 of 400
256. Question
1 pointsSection 12 of Arbitration and Concilation Act, 1996 deal with
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Question 257 of 400
257. Question
1 pointsWhen the mandate of an arbitrator terminate
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Question 258 of 400
258. Question
1 pointsThe request for the correction or interpretation of the award by the arbitral Tribunal has to be made by the party
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Question 259 of 400
259. Question
1 points'Personal misconduct' connotes :
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Question 260 of 400
260. Question
1 pointsConciliation proceedings :
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Question 261 of 400
261. Question
1 pointsThe primary source of equity is
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Question 262 of 400
262. Question
1 points''Equity now is that body of rules administered by English Courts of Justice which were if not for the operation of the judicature Acts. would be administered only by those courts which would be known as courts of Equity'' has been defined by
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Question 263 of 400
263. Question
1 pointschoose the correct answer
Till the year 1875
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Question 264 of 400
264. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct answer
(i) In case of conflict, the rule of chancery did not prevail over common law
(ii) the defendant could apply to the court of chancery for an order called a common injunction
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Question 265 of 400
265. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct statements
(i) Equitable interests can be settled, mortgaged and disposed of in the same way as legal interest
(ii) In case of conflict between equity and law, equity prevails
(iii) When equities are equal, that which is first in time will prevail
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Question 266 of 400
266. Question
1 pointsStatutory recognition of the principles of principles of equity is not found in
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Question 267 of 400
267. Question
1 pointsAequitaes est corectio legis generalities latae, qua parte deficit i.e, equity is correction of the general law in the part where it is defective, is particularly embodied in
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Question 268 of 400
268. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct statement
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Question 269 of 400
269. Question
1 points"He who seeks equity must do equity" does not apply in
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Question 270 of 400
270. Question
1 pointsChoose the incorrect statement
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Question 271 of 400
271. Question
1 pointsThe English Court of Chancery, incorporated into the Equity Jurisprudence of English law, the concept of acquitas as conceived by
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Question 272 of 400
272. Question
1 pointsEquality means
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Question 273 of 400
273. Question
1 points"Equity delights in equality'' does not apply to
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Question 274 of 400
274. Question
1 points"Where equities are equal, the first in time shall prevail", shall apply to all, but one of the following
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Question 275 of 400
275. Question
1 pointsIn the conflict between equity on one hand and the text of law on the other, the Court shall
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Question 276 of 400
276. Question
1 pointsDoctrine of Election is considered to be based on the principles of compensation by
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Question 277 of 400
277. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct answer
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Question 278 of 400
278. Question
1 points"Legal estate prevails over the equitable estate" applies to all, but one of the following
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Question 279 of 400
279. Question
1 pointsElection must be made within
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Question 280 of 400
280. Question
1 pointsAn election made is binding on
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Question 281 of 400
281. Question
1 pointsThe Indian Trusts Act, came into force on
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Question 282 of 400
282. Question
1 pointsThe Indian Trust Act shall apply to
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Question 283 of 400
283. Question
1 pointsThe Concept of 'trusts' originated in
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Question 284 of 400
284. Question
1 points'' Of all the exploits of Equity, the largest and the most important is the invention and development of Trust'' is a statement given by
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Question 285 of 400
285. Question
1 pointsThe concept of trust in the legal sense is unknown to
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Question 286 of 400
286. Question
1 pointsThe enactments relating to trust in India are all, but one
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Question 287 of 400
287. Question
1 pointsThe person not necessary for the creation for trust is
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Question 288 of 400
288. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Trusts have been considered to be valid ?
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Question 289 of 400
289. Question
1 pointsFor creating a trust of moveable property it is not necessary that
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Question 290 of 400
290. Question
1 pointswho can create trust among these ?
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Question 291 of 400
291. Question
1 pointsWho cannot become beneficiary among these ?
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Question 292 of 400
292. Question
1 pointsDuties of trustee excludes
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Question 293 of 400
293. Question
1 pointsInstances of passive breach of trust excludes
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Question 294 of 400
294. Question
1 pointsThe trustee has no right to be reimbursed for
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Question 295 of 400
295. Question
1 pointsChoose the wrong statement.
A trustee who has accepted the trust cannot afterwords renounce it, except
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Question 296 of 400
296. Question
1 pointsRights of beneficiaries are provided under
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Question 297 of 400
297. Question
1 pointsTrustees may be appointed in the following ways, except
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Question 298 of 400
298. Question
1 pointsThe power of appointment of new trustee is exercisable in all, but one, of the following
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Question 299 of 400
299. Question
1 pointsConstructive trusts arises
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Question 300 of 400
300. Question
1 pointsTracing is a claim
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Question 301 of 400
301. Question
1 pointsThe Indian Easements Act came into force
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Question 302 of 400
302. Question
1 pointsEasement is an offshoot of the law of
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Question 303 of 400
303. Question
1 pointsEasement is a right
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Question 304 of 400
304. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct the answer
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Question 305 of 400
305. Question
1 pointsThe branches of the trees extended over the neighbouring soil for a continuous length of time
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Question 306 of 400
306. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is not an ingredient of easement ?
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Question 307 of 400
307. Question
1 pointsEasement cannot be created by
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Question 308 of 400
308. Question
1 pointsEasement by grant may be created
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Question 309 of 400
309. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct answer
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Question 310 of 400
310. Question
1 pointsQuasi-easement is
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Question 311 of 400
311. Question
1 pointsNecessary conditions for creation of easement by prescription are all, but one of the following
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Question 312 of 400
312. Question
1 pointsRight which cannot be acquired by prescription
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Question 313 of 400
313. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct answer
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Question 314 of 400
314. Question
1 pointsEssentials of a valid custom exclude
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Question 315 of 400
315. Question
1 pointsChoose the correct answer
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Question 316 of 400
316. Question
1 pointsThe expenses which can be defrayed by the dominant owner
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Question 317 of 400
317. Question
1 pointsLand used as pathway by villagers for going to river Ghat because there was no other way to going to river Ghat and that villagers where using river water for domestic and drinking purposes as there was no well or tank in village, it was proved
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Question 318 of 400
318. Question
1 pointsA, the power of a mill, has acquired a prescriptive right, to divert to his mill part of the water of a stream. A alters the machinery of his mill. He
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Question 319 of 400
319. Question
1 pointsAn easement
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Question 320 of 400
320. Question
1 pointsA license is not deemed to be revoked under section 62 of the Indian Easements Act
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Question 321 of 400
321. Question
1 pointsBasically tort is a species of
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Question 322 of 400
322. Question
1 pointsFrazer has defined tort as
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Question 323 of 400
323. Question
1 pointsLaw of tort has developed mainly through
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Question 324 of 400
324. Question
1 pointsMaxim 'Damnum sine injuria' means
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Question 325 of 400
325. Question
1 pointsMalice in fact means a wrongful act done intentionally
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Question 326 of 400
326. Question
1 pointsUnder the Law of torts, the damages are
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Question 327 of 400
327. Question
1 pointsThe scope of availability of the defence of violent non-fit-injuria
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Question 328 of 400
328. Question
1 pointsin tort, mistake
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Question 329 of 400
329. Question
1 pointsAct of State
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Question 330 of 400
330. Question
1 pointsAction of State vis-a-vis his own subjects has to be justified
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Question 331 of 400
331. Question
1 pointsIn case of Independent tort feasors
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Question 332 of 400
332. Question
1 pointsVicarious liability in case of Independent contractor does not arise
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Question 333 of 400
333. Question
1 pointsThe term novus actus interveniens means
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-
Question 334 of 400
334. Question
1 pointsSlander is the publication of a defamatory statement in a
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Question 335 of 400
335. Question
1 pointsAction for defamation can be brought by
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Question 336 of 400
336. Question
1 pointsNuisance can be
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Question 337 of 400
337. Question
1 pointsFor an action of tort of negligence to be successful, which of the following is required to be proved
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Question 338 of 400
338. Question
1 pointsThe Occupant of dangerous premises owes a duty
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Question 339 of 400
339. Question
1 pointsDirect interference in the possession of land without lawful justification is called
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Question 340 of 400
340. Question
1 pointsWhich is correct,
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Question 341 of 400
341. Question
1 pointsThe Hindu code was drafted by
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-
Question 342 of 400
342. Question
1 pointsUnder Hindu law marriage is a
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Question 343 of 400
343. Question
1 pointsMarriage of two Hindus can be solemnised under
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Question 344 of 400
344. Question
1 pointswhen two persons are the descendants of a common ancestor by the same wife, they are said to be related to each other
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Question 345 of 400
345. Question
1 pointsSpinda relationship & prohibited relationship
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Question 346 of 400
346. Question
1 pointsThe marriage may be solemnized between two Hindus if
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-
Question 347 of 400
347. Question
1 pointsA marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 must be solemnised in accordance with the customary rites & ceremonies of
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Question 348 of 400
348. Question
1 pointsBigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act includes
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-
Question 349 of 400
349. Question
1 pointsSecond marriage can be proved
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Question 350 of 400
350. Question
1 pointsVoid marriage have been described under
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Question 351 of 400
351. Question
1 pointsA marriage wherein consent of a party to solemnisation of marriage is obtained by force of fraud is
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-
Question 352 of 400
352. Question
1 pointsPunishment prescribed under section 18 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 for child marriage is
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-
Question 353 of 400
353. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following amounts to reasonable excuse
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Question 354 of 400
354. Question
1 pointsA respondent can be ordered to take up residence with the spouse
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Question 355 of 400
355. Question
1 pointsCruelty as a ground for divorce has been provided under
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Question 356 of 400
356. Question
1 pointsA Hindu ceases to be a Hindu
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Question 357 of 400
357. Question
1 pointsA wife can file petition for divorce in the event of non-resumption of cohabitation, under section 13(2)(iii) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 after the passing of an order or decree
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-
Question 358 of 400
358. Question
1 pointsAfter the petition is presented under section 13B of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the parties have to wait for a minimum period of
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-
Question 359 of 400
359. Question
1 pointsBar to entertain a petition for divorce is contained in
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-
Question 360 of 400
360. Question
1 pointsAn appeal against the order under section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 lies before
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-
Question 361 of 400
361. Question
1 pointsReligion taught by the Prophet Mohammed is
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-
Question 362 of 400
362. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is Arabian virtue
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-
Question 363 of 400
363. Question
1 pointsAccording to the Shariat, if one of the parents is a Muslim, the child is to be treated as
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-
Question 364 of 400
364. Question
1 pointsIn Mohammedan law marriage is a
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-
Question 365 of 400
365. Question
1 pointsEssential requirements of Muslim marriage are
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-
Question 366 of 400
366. Question
1 pointsA marriage contracted by the guardian of a girl, while she has not attained the puberty is a
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-
Question 367 of 400
367. Question
1 pointsHusband married during miniority loses his right to repudiate the marriage on
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-
Question 368 of 400
368. Question
1 pointsZina in Mohammedan law means
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-
Question 369 of 400
369. Question
1 pointsIf a Muslim woman marries a second husband, such a marriage shall be
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-
Question 370 of 400
370. Question
1 pointsA Muslim woman can marry
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-
Question 371 of 400
371. Question
1 pointsShia law does not provide for
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Question 372 of 400
372. Question
1 pointsA wife of an irregular marriage is
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-
Question 373 of 400
373. Question
1 pointsA Shia male cannot contract a muta marriage with
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Question 374 of 400
374. Question
1 pointsDuring the term of muta marriage
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-
Question 375 of 400
375. Question
1 pointsA mahr for the purposes of 'show' is known as :
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-
Question 376 of 400
376. Question
1 pointsHusband can revoke the talaq
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-
Question 377 of 400
377. Question
1 pointsIn India, a marriage between a Muslim and a non-kitabiyya can be dissolved
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-
Question 378 of 400
378. Question
1 pointsDivorce by lla is a species of
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-
Question 379 of 400
379. Question
1 pointsIn a mubaraa divorce
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-
Question 380 of 400
380. Question
1 pointsConversation of a non-Muslim wife to Islam
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-
Question 381 of 400
381. Question
1 pointsThe negotiable Instruments Act,1881 applies to
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-
Question 382 of 400
382. Question
1 pointsThe Nogotiable Instruments Act, 1881 came into force on
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-
Question 383 of 400
383. Question
1 pointsA bill of exchange contains a/an
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-
Question 384 of 400
384. Question
1 pointsCheque is a
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-
Question 385 of 400
385. Question
1 pointsThe term 'Negotiable instrument' is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, under section
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-
Question 386 of 400
386. Question
1 pointsIf in an instrument the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid is stated differently in figures and in words
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-
Question 387 of 400
387. Question
1 points'At sight' under section 21 of the negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 means
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-
Question 388 of 400
388. Question
1 pointsIn a minor draws, indorses, deliver or negotiates an instrument, such instrument binds
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-
Question 389 of 400
389. Question
1 pointsAn authority to draw bills of exchange
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-
Question 390 of 400
390. Question
1 pointsWhere an indorse of an instrument excludes his liability and afterwards becomes the holder of the instrument, who are liable to him ?
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-
Question 391 of 400
391. Question
1 pointsThe indorsement of negotiable instrument followed by delivery
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-
Question 392 of 400
392. Question
1 pointsIn determining reasonable time for the purpose of payment of a negotiable instrument
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-
Question 393 of 400
393. Question
1 pointsThe question of the reasonableness of the time for presenting a bill of exchange for payment is a
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-
Question 394 of 400
394. Question
1 pointsA note under section 99 of the negotiable Instruments Act should contain among other things
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-
Question 395 of 400
395. Question
1 pointsA notice protest under section 102 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
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-
Question 396 of 400
396. Question
1 pointsTO whom of the following, payment of the amount due on a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque must be made in order to discharge the maker or acceptor
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-
Question 397 of 400
397. Question
1 pointsIf the words " not negotaible" are used with special crossing in a cheque, the cheque is
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-
Question 398 of 400
398. Question
1 pointsCrossing of a cheque effects the
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-
Question 399 of 400
399. Question
1 pointsWho among the following cannot cross a cheque ?
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-
Question 400 of 400
400. Question
1 pointsDishonour by non-acceptance takes place
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Incorrect
LAW Common Interview Questions
1) Impact of globalisation on Human Rights.
2) Devolution of power on Panchayati Raj institutions.
3) New dimension of ‘Right to Life’.
4) Judicial control of administrative discretion.
5) Doctrine of Stare-decisis in India and its relevance.
6) Purpose of criminal justice through Expiatory Theory of Punishment.
7) Legal aspects of Sustainable Development.
8) Legal status of international treaties in Indian Courts.
9) The concept of Cruelty.
10) Global protection of Rights of Women.
11) Medical negligence and consumer protection.
12) Lifting the corporate veil.
13) The Supreme Court of India is also called as ‘A Court of Record.’ – Discuss.
14) In the light of the Supreme Court’s decision in T.N. Sheshan v. Union of India, examine the powers and functions of Election Commission.
15) ‘The Constitution has ensured certain rights to the Minorities under Article 30.’ – Examine.
16) Discuss the writ of quo-warranto and de-facto doctrine.
17) Explain the notion of ‘error apparent on the face of record’.
18) Discuss the doctrine of Bias.
19) ‘Law and morality have same centre but different circumference.’ Comment.
20) ‘All the theories of juristic personality are so close to each other that they lead to lot of confusion.’ Comment.
21) While explaining the Austinian conception of law distinguish it from Hartian conception of law.
22) Explain various protections allowed to the accused.
23) Discuss the principles of joint-liability. Is it required to prove a pre-arranged plan in the absence of a criminal act to fix liability ?
24) Explain the maxim ‘Ignorantia facit excusat, ignorantia legis neminem excusat.’ Is a foreigner exempted under the doctrine ?
25) What are punitive mechanisms for the Commission of Offences under Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 ?
26) What do you understand by the term “Precautionary Principle” ? Is it part of Environmental Law in India ?
27) What are powers and functions of Central Government under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?
28) What role International Law Commission has played in codification and progressive development of International Law ? Discuss.
29) What are essential tests for the existence of International custom ? Discuss.
30) What are mechanisms in the Dispute Settlement Understanding of World Trade Organisation to settle Trade Disputes ?
31) What shall be the consequences of a Hindu Marriage Contracted in violation of the age requirements prescribed in Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ?
32) Critically examine the powers of Natural Guardian to deal with the property of minor.
33) Discuss the consequential effects of valid Talaq.
34) What are institutions established under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 to protect human rights in India ? Spell out the Constitution and Powers of National Human Rights Commission.
35) What are the reasons for discarding U.N. Human Rights Commission ? What is Constitution, powers and functions of Human Rights Council which succeeded Human Rights Commission in 2006 ?
36) ‘The wrong of defamation protects reputation and defences to the wrong, viz. truth and privilege protect the freedom of speech.’ Comment.
37) What are the mutual rights and duties of partners under Partnership Act ? Discuss.
LAW Previous Year Questions
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I want pdf file
Need 1st sem of LLB 1st semester in 2020
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