Junior Engineer Mechanical Practice Paper 3 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Mechanical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

clickhere-downarrow-red_opt

Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Who sits second to the left of Q?
- V
- P
- T
- Y
- Cannot be determined
Correct

P is second to the left of Q because Q is facing at centre.

Incorrect

P is second to the left of Q because Q is facing at centre.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

What is the position of T with respect to V?
- Fourth to the left
- Second to the left
- Third to the left
- Third to the right
- Second to the right
Correct

The position of T is third to the left of V because V is facing outside.

Incorrect

The position of T is third to the left of V because V is facing outside.
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- R
- W
- V
- S
- Y
Correct

S is facing at centre but R, W, V, Y are facing outside.

Incorrect

S is facing at centre but R, W, V, Y are facing outside.
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?

WP TR QW RS ?
- Y T
- V Y
- V Q
- P Y
- Q V
Correct

(Note Ignore left and right and move in clockwise direction only)

Incorrect

(Note Ignore left and right and move in clockwise direction only)
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following is true regarding R ?
- R is an immediate neighbour of V
- R faces the centre
- R sits exactly between T and S
- Q sits third to left of R
- None is true
Correct

R sits exactly between T and S.Here we should ignore left and right.

Incorrect

R sits exactly between T and S.Here we should ignore left and right.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What is the code for 'Piece'?
- 3
- 6
- 1
- 7
- Cannot be determined
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6     lots=0
piece = 7 friends= 4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6     lots=0
piece = 7 friends= 4
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '9' stand for?
- of
- mine
- friend
- lots
- metal
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916    ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .......(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163   ...........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6              lots=0
piece = 7   friends =4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916    ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .......(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163   ...........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6              lots=0
piece = 7   friends =4
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

Which of the following may represent 'a pleasure of mine'?
- 6309
- 5216
- 9216
- 3694
- 5041
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916                      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109                 ...........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend = 4

[Explanation: a = 6, of = 1 and mine = 9- and we don't know the code ofpleasure but seeing the answer options 6, 1, 9, is available in answer option(3)only]

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916                      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109                 ...........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend = 4

[Explanation: a = 6, of = 1 and mine = 9- and we don't know the code ofpleasure but seeing the answer options 6, 1, 9, is available in answer option(3)only]
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '0' stand for?
- mine
- metal
- of
- lots
- a
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916                   .........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109              .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                  ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916                   .........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109              .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                  ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

'873'would mean
- a metal piec
- metal for friend
- piece of advise
- friend of mine
- large metal piece
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916         ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109     .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163        ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

We know the code of 7 and 3, ie, piece and metal. Once again you have to do intelligent guess with the help of answer options. The answers option will
be (5).

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916         ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109     .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163        ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

We know the code of 7 and 3, ie, piece and metal. Once again you have to do intelligent guess with the help of answer options. The answers option will
be (5).
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
- B, E
- S, T
- P, R
- B, F
- None of these
Correct

P, R sits extreme ends of rows, who are facing southward.

Incorrect

P, R sits extreme ends of rows, who are facing southward.
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following faces A?
- R
- T
- P
- Q
- S
Correct

S is facing A.

Incorrect

S is facing A.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

How many persons are seated between T and S?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- None
Correct

There are two persons Q, V sits between T and S.

Incorrect

There are two persons Q, V sits between T and S.
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. To which of the following is E related to, following the same pattern?
- B
- D
- C
- A
- None of these
Correct

V is third to the East of P and F is also third to the East of C. So, B will be the correct answer because B is third to the East of E.

Incorrect

V is third to the East of P and F is also third to the East of C. So, B will be the correct answer because B is third to the East of E.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Which of the following is true regarding F?
- F sits second to right of C
- F is not an immediate neighbour of A
- F sits third to left of D
- F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
- F faces V
Correct

F faces V.

Incorrect

F faces V.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q?
- R
- V
- S
- T
- Cannot be determined
Correct

T is exactly between P and Q.

Incorrect

T is exactly between P and Q.
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Who amongst L, M, N, O and P is the shortest?
I. O is shorter than P but taller than N.
II. M is not as tall as L.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

I .N<O<P
II. L>M
Hence, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question, ie, who is shortest ?

Incorrect

I .N<O<P
II. L>M
Hence, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question, ie, who is shortest ?
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Are all the five friends uiz Leena, Amit, Arun, Ali and Ken who are seated around a circular table facing the centre.
I.Leena sits second to left of Amit. Amit faces the centre. Arun sits second to right of Leena.
II. Ali sits third to the left of Ken. Ken faces the centre. Amit sits to the immediate left of Ali, but Ken is not an immediate neighbour of Amit.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

So, from I and II, we can say Ali, Amit and Ken are facing centre. Since Ken is second left of Amit so, Leena can't. So, all are not facing centre. So, both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Incorrect

So, from I and II, we can say Ali, Amit and Ken are facing centre. Since Ken is second left of Amit so, Leena can't. So, all are not facing centre. So, both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Is T grandmother of Q?
I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the son of T.
II. L is father of N and N is daughter of T.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Since Q is the son of R. So, Q is male also R is son of T so, R is also male. Here, the sex of T is not clear. It may be male or female So, T may be grandfather or grandmother of Q.
II. We have to establish the relation between T and Q and in statement II, Q is nowhere. So, relationship cannot find.
So, finally both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

Incorrect

Since Q is the son of R. So, Q is male also R is son of T so, R is also male. Here, the sex of T is not clear. It may be male or female So, T may be grandfather or grandmother of Q.
II. We have to establish the relation between T and Q and in statement II, Q is nowhere. So, relationship cannot find.
So, finally both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Point A is towards which direction from point B?
I. If a person walks 4 m towards the North from point A and takes two consecutive right turns, each after walking 4 m, he would reach point C, which is 8 m away from point B.
II. Point D is 2 m towards the East of point A and 4 m towards the West of point B.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Take r = 8 m and draw a circle around this radius.
Now, B can be anywhere at circular path. So, we cannot exactly find the direction between A and B.
II.
So, A is in West of B.
So, Statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.

Incorrect

Take r = 8 m and draw a circle around this radius.
Now, B can be anywhere at circular path. So, we cannot exactly find the direction between A and B.
II.
So, A is in West of B.
So, Statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
How many brothers does Bharat have ?
I. Shiela, the mother of Bharat has only three children.
II. Meena, the grandmother of Bharat has only one granddaughter.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Shiela has three children, and the sex of two is not clear. If we took Bharat as a male. However, some people say that Bharat may be female but commonly we find Bharat as a male in the society.
So, according to statement II, we can find the number of brothers of Bharat. So, statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.

Incorrect

Shiela has three children, and the sex of two is not clear. If we took Bharat as a male. However, some people say that Bharat may be female but commonly we find Bharat as a male in the society.
So, according to statement II, we can find the number of brothers of Bharat. So, statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement If parking space is not available office, park your vehicles in the mall and walk to are a in the office.
Assumptions
I. The mall is at a walkable distance from the office.
II. The office does not allow visitors' vehicles in its premises.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Assumption I is implicit, because if there is no parking space, then "park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office" given in statement justify that mall is at a walkable distance from the office. Office allows all vehicles till space is available.

Incorrect

Assumption I is implicit, because if there is no parking space, then "park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office" given in statement justify that mall is at a walkable distance from the office. Office allows all vehicles till space is available.
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.
Assumptions
I. All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.
II. Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Here, all and only does not make assumption I implicit. Since it is already specified in the statement that farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers means organic fertilizers are available.

Incorrect

Here, all and only does not make assumption I implicit. Since it is already specified in the statement that farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers means organic fertilizers are available.
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement An advertisement by bank X-'Our interest rates for education loans are lower than any other bank'.
Assumptions
I. Some other banks also provide education loans.
II. Interest rates charged on education loans are different for different banks.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

According to bank X, interest rate is comparing to others, means some other banks are also providing education loans. Also interest rates varies bank to bank.
So, both assumptions are implicit.

Incorrect

According to bank X, interest rate is comparing to others, means some other banks are also providing education loans. Also interest rates varies bank to bank.
So, both assumptions are implicit.
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement For any kind of problem with your mobile phone, contact our help desk immediately.
Assumptions
I. Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.
II. Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved at that particular desk, but it can be solved by someone else. So, only I is impiicit.

Incorrect

Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved at that particular desk, but it can be solved by someone else. So, only I is impiicit.
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity.
Assumptions
I. Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight.
II. Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Assumption I is not implicit because only that medicine is not which can reduce weight, and also weight can reduce without medicines.

Incorrect

Assumption I is not implicit because only that medicine is not which can reduce weight, and also weight can reduce without medicines.
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

On which of the following days is Physics taught?
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

How many subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct

Three subjects i e Maths, Chemistry and Statistics.

Incorrect

Three subjects i e Maths, Chemistry and Statistics.
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

Which of the following subjects is taught on Saturday?
- Botany
- Statistics
- Zoology
- Maths
- Physics
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

On which of the following days is Statistics taught?
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

If Statistics is related to Zoology and Physics is related to Botany in a certain way, then 'to which of the following would Chemistry be related to, following the same pattern?
- Maths
- Statistics
- Physics
- English
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
The following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given below

S L U A Y J V E I O N Q G Z B D R H

If 'SU' is related to 'HD' and 'UY' is related to 'DZ' in a certain way, to which of the following is 'YV' related to,following the same pattern?
- ZQ
- IN
- BG
- QO
- DZ
Correct

So, YV is related to ZQ.

Incorrect

So, YV is related to ZQ.
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.

Conference : Chairman :: Newspaper : ?
- Reporter
- Distributor
- Printer
- Editor
Correct

As Chairman is the highest authority in a conference similarly Editor is in Newspaper.

Incorrect

As Chairman is the highest authority in a conference similarly Editor is in Newspaper.
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Safe : Secure :: Protect : ?
- Guard
- Lock
- Sure
- Conserve
Correct

As safe ans secure have same meaning in the same way protect and guard have same meaning.

Incorrect

As safe ans secure have same meaning in the same way protect and guard have same meaning.
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Master : OCUVGT :: LABOUR : ?
- NDERWT
- NCDQWT
- NEDRWT
- NBERWT
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Microphone : Loud :: Microscope : ?
- Elogate
- Investigate
- Magnify
- Examine
Correct

As Microphone makes sound louder similarly Microscope makes the object magnified.

Incorrect

As Microphone makes sound louder similarly Microscope makes the object magnified.
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
Melt : Liquid :: Freeze : ?
- Condense
- Solid
- Force
- Force
Correct

As on melting, liquid is formed similarly on freezing solid is formed.

Incorrect

As on melting, liquid is formed similarly on freezing solid is formed.
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements : All cards are boxes.

I. No box is slate.

II. Some slates are tiles.

Conclusions

I. No slate is card.

II. Some tiles are boxes.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-diagram will be
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some papers are arrows.

All arrows are sticks.

Some sticks are boards.

Conclusions :

I. Some boards are papers.

II. No board is paper.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-Diagram will be
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

I.All ropes are tiles.

II. Some tiles are bangles.

III. All bangles are nails.

Conclusions

I. Some nails are ropes.

II. Some nails are tiles.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-daigram will be
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be a
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding.commonly known facts.

Statements

All rings are phones.

All phones are spoons.

Some phones are files.

All files are covers.

Conclusions

I. Some files are rings.

II. Some covers are spoons.

III. Some spoons are phones.

IV. Some rings are covers.
- Only II and IV follow
- Only I, II and III follow
- Only I and II follow
- Only II and III follow
- Only II and III follow
Correct

Each letter in the word is moved two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.

Incorrect

Each letter in the word is moved two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
If, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will DIAGRAM be in that code?
- BGYPYEK
- LKBGYPK
- GLPEYKB
- BGYEPYK
Correct

The first, third, fifth, seventh, ninth and eleventh letters in the word are each moved one-step forward; the second, fourth, eighth and tenth letters are each moved one step backward, while the middle (i.e. sixth) letter is moved two steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.

Incorrect

The first, third, fifth, seventh, ninth and eleventh letters in the word are each moved one-step forward; the second, fourth, eighth and tenth letters are each moved one step backward, while the middle (i.e. sixth) letter is moved two steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
In a certain code, PRODUCTIONS is written as QQPCVEUHPMT. How is ORIENTATION written in that code?
- PSJFOVBSJNO
- NSHFMVBSJNO
- PQJDOVBSJNO
- None of these
Correct

The first letter of the word is moved one step backward, while the two middle letters are each moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.

Incorrect

The first letter of the word is moved one step backward, while the two middle letters are each moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
In a certain code, FAVOUR is written as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in that code?
- CBMHDS
- CBFFDS
- EBHHFS
- EBFHDS
Correct

The first, third and fifth letters are each moved one step backward, while second, fourth and sixth letters are each moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.

Incorrect

The first, third and fifth letters are each moved one step backward, while second, fourth and sixth letters are each moved one step forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that code?
- KVOHMF
- TIMFKD
- ITMFKD
- None of these
Correct

Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.

Incorrect

Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
In a certain code, KAVERI is written as VAKIRE. How is MYSORE written in that code?
- The letters in the first half and second half of the word are written in the reverse order to obtain the code. Thus, we have : MYSORE
- The letters in the first half and second half of the word are written in the reverse order to obtain the code. Thus, we have : SYMERO
- EROSYM
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a certain language, which word would be coded as ZXCMP?
- YYBNO
- AWDLQ
- AYDNQ
- none of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
If in a certain language, GRASP is coded as BMVNK, which word would be coded as CRANE?
- BQZMD
- GVERI
- HWFSJ
- none of these
Correct

Each letter of the word is five steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

Incorrect

Each letter of the word is five steps ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
If 'rain' is 'water', 'water' is 'road', 'road' is 'cloud', 'cloud' is 'sky', 'sky' is 'sea' and 'sea' is 'path', where do aero planes fly ?
- Cloud
- Water
- Cloud
- Sea
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
If 'cushion' is called 'pillow', 'pillow' is called 'mat', 'mat' is called 'bed sheet' and 'bed sheet' is called 'cover', which will be spread on the floor ?
- Pillow
- Mat
- Bed sheet
- None of these
Correct

'mat' will be spread on the floor But 'mat' is called 'bed sheet'.So, a 'bed sheet' will be spread on the floor.

Incorrect

'mat' will be spread on the floor But 'mat' is called 'bed sheet'.So, a 'bed sheet' will be spread on the floor.
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Currently, what is the Bank Rate as specified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
- 7 per cent
- 8 per cent
- 9 per cent
- 9.5 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
Who among the following has written the book ‘Half Girlfriend’?
- Amish Tripathi
- Chetan Bhagat
- Ravinder Singh
- Durjoy Datta
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The Hiroshima day was observed recently on which of the following dates? On this day in 1945, an atom bomb was dropped by the US on Hiroshima in one of the final chapters of World War II.
- Aug 6
- Aug 7
- Aug 9
- Aug 10
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The 41st Chess Olympiad was held recently in which of the following cities?
- Tromso, Norway
- Belgrade, Serbia
- Sofia, Bulgaria
- Havana, Cuba
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
The RBI announced its bimonthly policy review on 5 Aug 2014. Which of the following is NOT correct in the light of the policy review?
- Repo rate – 7 per cent
- Cash Reserve Ratio – 4 per cent
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio – 22 per cent
- Marginal Standing Facility – 9 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
Pran Kumar Sharma, who died, recently, was an eminent
- novelist
- guitarist
- cartoonist
- historian
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
Nirmala Sitharaman is holding which of the following Union Ministries as of now? Minister of State (Independent Charge) for
- Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- Ministry of Skill Development, Entrepreneurship, Youth Affairs and Sports
- Ministry of Planning, Statistics and Programme Implementation
- Ministry for Development of North Eastern Region
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
India has put on hold all defence procurements from the Finmeccannica company and its affiliate firms in the wake of an
alleged chopper scam. This company is based in
- France
- Italy
- Israel
- Sweden
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The 18th BASIC Ministerial Meeting was held in which of the following cities recently? The Environment Ministers of BASIC countries met to discuss important issues relating to current United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) negotiations.
- Cape Town
- Beijing
- New Delhi
- Brasilia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
artificial lake was created in Sunkoshi river near Nepal-Tibet. This also poses serious flood threat to several districts of Bihar as Sunkoshi flows across the border into Bihar as the
- Gandak River
- Kosi River
- Punpun River
- Sone River
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
As per the recent report of the united missions Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP), Indian economy is expected to grow by ________ in current fiscal.
- 5 per cent
- 5.5 per cent
- 6 per cent
- 6.5 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
In order to check rising to current Account Deficit (CAD), the govt had raised import duties on the yellow metal to ________.
- 5 per cent
- 8 per cent
- 10 per cent
- 12 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has launched construction of a new Suez Canal that aims to speed up traffic along the existing waterway and boost the country’s battered economy?
- Egypt
- Syria
- Israel
- Iran
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Chuck Hagel, who visited New Delhi, recently, is currently the ________.
- US Defence Secretary
- US Secretary of State
- US Secretary of Treasury
- US Secretary of Transportation
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
In his recent review, the RBI governor stressed that SLR and PSL process should be made more effective. While SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio, PSL stands for
- Priority Social Lending
- Preferred Sector Lending
- Priority Sector Lending
- Priority Sector Leverage
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
The veteran actress Smita Talwalkar died recently. She was a film and theatre actress of ________ cinema.
- Tamil
- Marathi
- Kannada
- Bengali
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
The govt sacked Governor Kamla Beniwal recently for alleged misuse of govt fund. She was erstwhile governor of
- Assam
- Manipur
- Meghalaya
- Mizoram
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
The two-day 18th BASIC Ministerial Meeting was held recently. Which of the following is NOT a member of BASIC group?
- China
- Indonesia
- South Africa
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
The US President Barack Obama announced a commitment of USD 33 bn to support development across ________ recently in a meeting with the representatives of the region.
- Gulf region
- African region
- Asia continent
- North America region
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
India is opting to acquire the Apache attack and Chinook heavy-lift helicopters from which of the following countries at present?
- US
- Russia
- Israel
- Sweden
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
The World Health Organisation (WHO) declared the outbreak of which of the following diseases in West Africa to be an international public health emergency that requires an extraordinary response to stop its spread?
- Ebola
- MERS
- Swine Flu
- Japanese Encephalitis
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
The govt has increased the clean energy cess on coal from Rs 50 per ton to ________, recently, to raise more revenue for clean energy and cross subsidizing solar and other renewable energy.
- Rs 100
- Rs 150
- Rs 200
- Rs 250
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Which of the following states has no Regional Rural Bank (RRB)?
- Maharashtra
- Goa
- Tamil Nadu
- Karnataka
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
Miihier Singh is all set to represent India at the 48th Asian Championship of ________ in Macau in China.
- Bodybuilding
- Chess
- Weightlifting
- Wrestling
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
In the archery world cup stage VI in wroclaw ,poland , Indian women’s team won gold medal. Who among the following is NOT a member of the women’s archery team of India?
- Lakshmi Rani Manji
- Bombayala Devi Lashram
- Deepika Kumari
- Babita Kumari
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
Who among the following is the Union Environment, Forest and Climate Change Minister of India at present? He addressed the 18th BASIC ministerial meeting on climate change in New Delhi recently.
- Ananth Kumar
- Inderjit Singh Rao
- Prakash Javadekar
- Dharmendra Pradhan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has launched a mission to map Arctic seabed to support its bid to extend its territory
in the region? The region is believed to include large oil and gas reserves.
- Russia
- Canada
- Norway
- Sweden
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
Sushma Swaraj visited Myanmar to participate in ASEAN-India Ministerial meeting recently. Which of the following is the capital city of Myanmar?
- Yangon
- Mandalay
- Mergui
- Nay Pyi Taw
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
Name the Speaker of the US House of Representatives who has invited Prime Minister Narendra Modi to address a joint session of the US Congress at a date convenient to him during his upcoming US visit.
- Mitch McConnell
- John Boehner
- Nancy Pelosi
- Eric Cantor
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
The visiting Indian Men’s Hockey team thrashed which of the following countries 5-1 in their second match to clinch the three-match test series recently?
- Japan
- Malaysia
- South Korea
- Bangladesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
The17th Asian Games (Asiad) is scheduled to be held at Incheon, South Korea from Sep 19 to Oct 4. The first Asian Games where held in which of the following cities in 1951?
- New Delhi
- Manila
- Tokyo
- Jakarta
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The Cenral Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has registered a preliminary enquiry against Kingfisher Airlines and which of the following banks in connection with the Rs 900 cr that the bank had given as a loan to the Airlines?
- Syndicate Bank
- State Bank of India
- IDBI Bank
- Bank of India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
Samba is a variety of which of the following grains grown in Sri Lanka and some parts of India (mainly in Tamil Nadu)?
- Maize
- Rice
- Cane
- Wheat
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
Manik Sarkar has urged Prime Minister Narendra Modi for further improvement in relations with Bangladesh for better connectivity and development of the North-East region. He is the present Chief Minister of which of the following states?
- Manipur
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Mizoram
- Tripura
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
Deepika Kumari is associated with which of the following games?
- Shooting
- Boxing
- Archery
- Badminton
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
The Nation remembered which of the following movements on its 72nd anniversary recently? It was launched in 1942 by the Indian National Congress.
- 1) Quit India Movement
- Civil Disobedience Movement
- Salt March
- Khilafat Movemen
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Recep Tayyip Erdogan won recent presidential polls in which of the following countries? He is set to become Turkey’s first elected President.
- Turkey
- Cambodia
- Egypt
- Syria
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
China has excluded which of the following electronics manufacturer from the list of products that can be bought with public money citing security concerns? The exclusion makes it the fourth major foreign company to face hurdles in the Chinese market.
- Samsung
- Apple
- HTC
- Blackberry
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has become the new Chair of the ASEAN group?
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- Malaysia
- Indonesia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
In her address at the 12th India - Asian meeting the recently, the External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj referred to ‘5Ts’ of govt of India. Which of the following is NOT among them?
- Tradition
- Talent
- Tourism
- Trade
- Telecommunication
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
China is pushing for a BCIM corridor to bolster the economy of the region. Which of the following countries is/are also part of the corridor?
- Brazil
- Indonesia
- Myanmar
- Maldives
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
The mettur Dam is one of the largest and oldest dams in India which was built in 1934. It is situated on which of the following rivers?
- Cauvery
- Krishna
- Godavari
- Narmada
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Which of the following is a banking/economy related word?
- Apartheid
- Apprehension
- Undermine
- Appropriation
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
Who among the following won the men’s singles of the Rogers Cup 2014 recently?
- Andy Murray
- Jo-Wilfried Tsonga
- Novak Djokovic
- Roger Federer
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi dedicated to the nation two hydel power projects, the 44 MW Chutak hydro-electric project and the 45 MW Nimoo Bazgo project in which of the following states recently?
- Himachal Pradesh
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Jammu and Kashmir
- Uttarakhand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
Islamist militants forced to flee thousands of members of the Yazidi religious minority and have reportedly killed at least 500 people of the community in which of the following countries recently?
- Iran
- Iraq
- Libya
- Kenya
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
During his recent visit to India the US Defence Secretary Chuck Hagel offered to co-produce and co-develop the next generation Javelin ________ guided missiles.
- anti-tank
- anti-aircraft
- torpedo destroyer
- anti-ballistic
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
India and the 10-nation ASEAN group are likely to sign the long-delayed free trade agreement in services and investments soon. Which of the following is NOT an ASEAN member country?
- Singapore
- Indonesia
- Brunei
- Cambodia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Aruna Asaf Ali hoisted the Indian Tricolour for the first time at which of the following places during the Quit India Movement?
- Jaliawala Bagh, Amritsar
- Chittagong (now in Bangladesh)
- Gowalia Tank Maidan, Mumbai
- Bardoli, Gujarat
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
The market regulator SEBI has cleared REIT, InvIT norms to tap Rs 1-tn fund inflows from foreign and domestic investors. While REIT stands for Real Estate Investment Trust, what does InvIT stand for?
- Information Technology Investment Trusts
- Infrastructure Investment Trusts
- Infrastructure Innovation Trusts
- Information Technology Innovation Trusts
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
The first law of Thermodynamics status:
- if two bodies are each equal in temperature to a temperature of the third body, they are equal in temperature each other.
- that in a closed system under going through a cycle the net work delivered the surroundings in proportional to the net heat taken from the surroundings
- heat cannot flow from lower temperature to higher temperature without the aid of the external agency.
- that the net work can be produced during a cycle without some supply of heat.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
A cannot cycle consists of:
- two constant pressure and two adiabatic processes
- two constant volume and two adiabatic processes
- two isothermal and two adiabatic processes
- one constant pressure, one constant volume and two adiabatic processes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
The expression $1-\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)^{r-1}$ de - notes the following efficiency of an I.C. engine
- mechanical efficiency
- relative efficiency
- air standard efficiency
- volumetric efficiency
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
The thermal conductivity in S.I. units is expressed as—
- J/ $m^{2}$ °K
- W/m °K
- W/m °K sec
- Wm/°K
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
The method adopted for automation and mass production in welding is
- Resistance Arc welding
- Gas welding
- Brazing
- Flash welding
Correct

Incorrect
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
Monel metal is used as a filler rod when welding
- Stain less steel
- Low Carbon steel
- Carbon steel
- Cast Iron
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
A long fin extends from external surface of a cylinder through which hot fluid flows, the excess temperature at the tip of the fin would be
- Zero
- Ambient temperature
- higher than ambient temperature
- Lower than ambient temperature
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
Two ends of a rod are maintained at same temperature. The temperature gradient at the center of the rod is
- Constant
- Zero
- a linear function
- Maximum
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
Bainite is a fine mixture of
- ferrit and cementite
- cementite and pearlite
- pearlite and austenite
- ferrite and austinite
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
Babbit metal is an alloy of
- Sn, Cu, Sb & Pb
- Sn and Cu
- Sb and Pb
- Sn, Cu, Pb
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
The material used in the construction of thermistor is
- Mickel oxide
- Iron oxide
- Nickel
- Tungsten
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
LVDT converts
- A Linear displacement into electrical signal
- Pressure into electrical out-put
- Strain into electrical output
- Any of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
If the air filter is removed in petrol engine the air/fuel ratio will
- Increases
- Decreases
- increase or decrease
- remains unchanged
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
The air/fuel ratio in a petrol engine is controlled by
- Governor
- Injector
- Carburetor
- Flywheel
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
Octane number of 2, 2, 4 tri methyl pentane is
- zero
- between 50 and 70
- nearly 80
- 100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
For a pure substance at its triple point, the number of degrees of freedom is :
- zero
- 1
- 2
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
An IC engine has a bore and stroke of a 2 units each. The area to calculate heat loss can be taken as
- 4n
- 5TI
- 6m
- 87t
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
Upto the critical radius of insulation
- added insulation will increase heat loss.
- added insulation will decrease heat loss.
- convection heat loss will be less than conduction heat loss.
- heat flux will decrease.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
A vertical square gate holds back water as shown in the figure the moment about the bottom hedge is
- $vl^{3}/2$
- $vl^{3}/3$
- $vl^{4}/3$
- $vl^{4}/6$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Under which of the following conditions will the equation

$\frac{p}{v}+z+\frac{U^{2}}{2g}$

= constant be val-id in the flow field?

(i) Flow is rotational

(ii) Flow is irrational

(iii) Flow is incompressible

(iv) Flow is steady

(v) Flow is laminar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- (i), (iii) & (v)
- (ii), (iv) & (v)
- (i), (mi & Ov)
- (ii), W & (iv)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
Why 220V A.C. is more dangerous than 220 V.D.C?
- the D.C. attracts
- peak voltage for A.C. is much larger
- The body offers less resistance to A.C
- Due to some other reasons
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
A piece of copper and germanium are coded from room temperature to 100 k.What happens to their resistivities?
- decreases in both
- increases in both
- decreases in copper and in-creases in germanium
- increases in copper and decreases in germanium
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
What is the mechanical advantage of single fixed pulley?
- 1
- 2
- 0.5
- 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
Which of the following graphs shown in the figure given below correctly represents the cooling of a body due to radiations?
- I
- II
- III
- None
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
Which drill produces broken chips instead of long coils?
- Jobbers drill
- Flat drill
- core drill
- Oil hole drill
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
Gear that neutralizes side thrust is
- Herringbone gear
- Bevel gear
- Special gear
- Spur gear
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
A carnot's engine operates with a source at 500K and sink at 375K. The engine consumes 600K cal of heat in one cycle, the heat rejected to the sink per cycle is
- 250 K Cal
- 350 K Cal
- 450 K Cal
- 550 K Cal
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
Compressed air is contained in a cylinder at room temperature. It suddenly starts leaking through a hole. Which of the following correctly describes the behavior of the gas coming out?
- There is no change in its temperature.
- It gets cooler.
- It becomes hotter.
- It may get cooler or become hotter depending on the humidity in the air.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
If in a petrol engine, by mistake diesel fuel is supplied
- The engine will not run.
- The engine will run at lower rpm.
- The engine will run at reduced efficiency.
- The engine will give dense smoke and will consume more fuel as well as lubricating oil
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For the same heat loss and temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth of conductivity 0.14 W/mK and thickness
- 0.5m
- 0.1m
- 0.2 m
- 0.5 m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
Freezing point of mercury is
- -98.87°c
- -48.80°c
- - 38.87°c
- - 35.27°c
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
Transition temperature corresponds to
- Maximum impact energy
- Minimum impact energy
- Sharp change in impact energy
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
Creep plays important role in the design of
- Cylinder of an I.C. Engine
- Boiler tubings
- Blading of gas turbine
- Blading of steam turbine
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
Transition temperature corresponds to
- NiandMo
- Mo and Cr
- Ni and Cr
- Cr and W.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
The alloying elements in steel that improves creep strength at specified creep rate is
- Cr, Co, Ni
- Cr, Co, Si
- Cr, Co, P
- Cr, Co, S
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
In situation, where water passes through bearing the material for bearing used is
- Lignam Vitae
- Cast iron
- Babbit
- Teflon
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
Percentage elongation of a specimen is the indicator of
- UTS
- Yield strength
- Ductility
- Residence UTS - Ultimate Stress
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
Fatigue strength is least affected by
- Temperature
- Stress concentration
- Frequency
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
A centrifugal pump is not livering liquid due to
- Lack of prime
- Speed of pump driver low
- discharge head too high
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
Assume that a test engineer put a 300-Ib weight on the scales beam and it took 1 10 sec for the beam to rise when Weighing 0.85 specific gravity oil. Find the pumps capacity in r.p.m.
- 0.23
- 2.3
- 23
- 0.023
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
The universal gas constant in S.I. unit is equal to
- 8.48kgf-m/ kg mole/°k
- 84.8kgf-m/ kg mole/°k
- 848kgf-m/ kg mole/°k
- 8314kgf-m/ kg mole °k
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
Air full ratio theoretically for a patrol engine is approximately
- 25:1
- 20:1
- 10:1
- 15:1
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
A cantilever beam of square section is subjected to a load W at the free end. If the length of the beam is doubled and load reduced to half, the deflection at the free and 95 compared to original deflection would be —
- 2 times
- 4 times
- 8 times
- 16 times
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
One newton is equal to —
- 103 dynes
- 104 dynes
- 105 dynes
- 106 dynes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
For high head and low discharge the suitable turbine is —
- Pelton
- Francis
- Kaplan
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
If D is distance moved by the effort and d is the distance moved by the load then velocity ratio (V.R.) is given by —
- $\frac{d}{D}$
- $\frac{D}{d}$
- $d\times D$
- $\frac{1}{D\times d}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
A capiston or a turret lathe is used to manufacture time
- any number of identical prices in the minimum time
- different pieces at a time
- All of the above
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
Velocity ratio is the ratio of the
- Driver & ideal pully diameter
- Speed of driver pulley to that of driving pulley
- Speed of driver & computer shaft pulley
- Any of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
Parson's turbine is a (an)
- impulse turbine
- reaction turbine
- impulse reaction turbine
- any of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
Which of the following boiler has no circulation of water
- Cornish boiler
- Lanca shire boiler
- Benson boiler
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
A soild shaft of diameter D transmits the torque equal to:
- $\frac{\pi}{32}fs\: D^{3}$
- $\frac{\pi}{64}fs\: D^{3}$
- $\frac{\pi}{16}fs\: D^{3}$
- $\frac{\pi}{8}fs\: D^{3}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
Rankines formula is an empirical formula which is used for
- long columns
- short column
- both long and short column
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
The amount of radiation depends upon—
- temperature of the body only
- surface area of the body only
- nature of the body only
- All of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
The process of heat transfer, from a hot body to a cold body in a straight line without affecting the enter being medium, is called.
- radiation
- convection
- conduction
- none of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
For welding non-ferrous medals the preferable electric supply is
- DC
- AC (low frequency)
- AC (high frequency)
- Either AC or DC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Silica is the second most important constitment of moulding sand which provides
- Binding Strength
- Refractoriness
- Porosity
- Chemical resistance
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
The units of kinematic viscosity are
- Ns/M2
- Kg.s/M2
- Kgm2/s
- M2/sec
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
The density of the fluid varies with
- Change of temperature
- Change of pressure
- Change of temperature and pressure
- Neither change of temperature nor change of pressure
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
For a beam simply supported at ends carrying load 'w' uniformly distributed throughout its length 'L', the maximum bending moment is
- $\frac{Wl}{4}$
- $\frac{Wl}{8}$
- $\frac{Wl}{16}$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
St Venants' theory of failure is
- Maximum principle stress theory
- Maximum principle strain theory
- Maximum shear stress theory
- Maximum strain energy theory
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
The thickness of oil film between gauge block is of the order of
- 0.2 micro inch
- 0.5 micro inch
- 1 micro inch
- 10 micro inch
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
In a thermocouple, the potential between the two functions is due to temperature gradient along the conductors in the circuit. This effect is named as
- Peltiers effect
- Thomson's effect
- Seebak effect
- Maxwell's effect
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
Increasing the temperature of intave air in an I.C engine will
- Increase the efficiency
- Decrease the efficiency
- Increase or decrease the efficiency
- will not affect the efficiency.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
Maximum temperature produced in an I.C engine cylinder ranges from
- 1000-1500°C
- 1500-2000°C
- 2000-2500°C
- 2500-3000°C
Correct

Incorrect
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
A composite section made of two materials has modulie of elasticity in the ratio 1 : 2 and length in the ratio 2:1. The ratio of corresponding stress under a direct load is :
- 2 : 1
- 1 : 2
- 4 : 1
- 1 : 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
A steel rod of 1 sq cm. cross-sectional area is 100 cm. long and has a young's modulus of elasticity 2 x 10⁶ Kgf/cm². It is subjected to an axial pull of 2000 kgf. The elongation of the rod will be:
- 0.05 cm
- 0.1 cm
- 0.15 cm
- 0.20 cm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
In optical pyrometers absorption filter is used
- to get monochromatic light
- to eliminate stray ravs of light
- to minimise reflection of rays from the lens surface
- to enable filament operation at reduced intensity for longer life
Correct

Incorrect
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
A current loop placed in a magnetic field behaves like a
- magnetic dipole
- magnetic substance
- magnetic pole
- all are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
For a fully developed flow through a pipe, the ratio of the maximum velocity to the average velocity is
- 1
- 2
- 7
- 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
A jet of water issues from a nozzle with a velocity of 20 m/s and it impinges normally on a flat plate moving away from it at 10 m/s. If the cross-sectional area of the jet is 0.02 m²and the density of water is taken as 1000 kg/m³, then the force developed on the plate will be
- 10N
- 100N
- 1000N
- 2000 N
Correct

Incorrect
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
Cold rolling gives
- smooth oxide-free surface
- dimensions finished to close tolerances.
- increased tensile strength
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
In a CRM. Network dummy activity (a hypothetical activity) is inserted in the network to clarify activity pattern under the following situations :
- to make activities with common starting and finishing events distinguishable.
- to identify and maintain the proper precedence relationship between activities that are not connected by events.
- to bring all "loose ends" to a single initial and a single terminal event in each net-work using dummies, if necessary
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
The adiabatic bulk elasticity depends on
- Pressure & Volume
- Volume & Atomicity
- Atomicity & Pressure
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
What happens to entropy during the change of phase?
- Decreases
- Increases
- Remains constant
- May increase or decrease
Correct

Incorrect
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
Internal teeth in gear are cut by
- Hobbing
- Pinion Shaping
- Rack planing
- Milling
Correct

Incorrect
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
A tooth paste tube can be produced by
- Solid forward extrusion
- Solid backward extrusion
- Hollow forward extrusion
- Hollow backward extrusion
Correct

Incorrect
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
A bar of diameter 30 mm is subjected to a tensile load such that the measured extension on a gauge length of 200 mm is 0.09 mm and the change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. The Poison's ratio will be
- 1/4
- 1/3
- 1/4.5
- 1/2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
The stress at which a material fractures under large number of reversal of stress is called
- Endurance limit
- Creep
- Ultimate strength
- Residual stress
Correct

Incorrect
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be
- 3.33
- 3.00
- 2.33
- 1.33
Correct

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
A steel wire of 20 mm diameter is bent into a circular shape of 10 m radius. If E, the modulus of elasticity is 2 x 106 Kg/ cm2, then the maximum stress induced in the wire is
- $10^{3}\: kg/cm^{2}$
- $2\times 10^{3}\: kg/cm^{2}$
- $4\times 10^{3}\: kg/cm^{2}$
- $6\times 10^{3}\: kg/cm^{2}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
Proof stress is related to
- Yielding
- Necking
- Fracture
- Elongation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
Colombo's theory of failure is
- Maximum principal strain theory
- Maximum principal strain theory
- Maximum shear stress theory
- Shear strain energy theory
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
The bending moment diagram for a cantilever subjected to a couple 'M' at free end will be
- Triangle
- Rectangle
- Parabolic
- Hyperbolic
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
Beltrami, high theory of failure is
- Maximum principal stress-theory
- Maximum Shear stress theory
- Maximum Principal strain theory
- Strain Energy theory
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
The length of the strut is ‘L’ and its one end is fixed and the other end is free. The equivalent length of the column is
- ( 0.5L
- 0.707 L
- L
- 2 L
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
The alloying element in steel which increases hardness is
- Cr
- Mo
- Ni
- V
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
Rankine's theory is
- Maximum principal stress theory
- Maximum shear stress theory
- Maximum principal strain theory
- Strain energy stress
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
Centripetal force is expressed as
- F = $\frac{mr}{v^{2}}$
- F = $\frac{mv^{2}}{r}$
- F = $\frac{v^{2}}{r}$
- F = $mv^{2}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
A force of200 dynes displaces a body through 300 cm in the direction of the force. How much work is done?
- 6000 ergs
- 600 ergs
- 60 ergs
- 60,000 ergs
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
Carburettor is used for a
- Spark ignition engine
- Compression ignitation engine
- Steam engine
- Gas engine.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
The closed-coiled helical spring are made form the same small diameter wire, one wound on 2.5 cm diameter cure and the other on 1.25 cm diameter cure, if each spring has n coils the ratio of their spring constant would be -
- 1
- 1/2
- 1/4
- 1/8
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
An isentropic process is always
- Irreversible and adiabatic
- Reversible and isothermal
- Friction less and irreversible
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
Atmospheric pressure is equal to—
- 1 kg/cm2
- 1.033 kg/cm2
- 1.1 kg/cm2
- 1.133 kg/cm2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
A Rocket exits exhaust gases with P = 0.5 kg/m3 out a 50 cm dia nozzle at a velocity of 1200 m/s. Estimate the thrust, in KN.
- 420
- 280
- 140
- 40
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
The first law of thermodynamics deals with —
- Conservation of mass
- Conservation of heat
- Conservation of energy
- Conservation of momentum
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
Coefficient of friction is denoted as
- u = $\frac{F}{R}$
- M = $F\times R$
- M = $M=\frac{R}{F}$
- U = $\frac{\zeta F}{R}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
The gas law of Bayle's and Charle's are expressed as
- $\frac{P_{1}V_{1}}{T_{1}}=\frac{P_{1}V_{2}}{T_{2}}=\frac{PV}{T}$
- $\frac{P_{1}}{T_{2}}=\frac{V_{1}}{V_{2}}$
- $\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}=\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
A gas perform the most work when it expounds
- isothermally
- adiabatically
- isobarically
- isenthalpically
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
The intensity of solar radiation on earth is nearly Buy Today
- 1kw/m2
- 10kw/m2
- 100kw/m2
- 1000kw/m2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
In orthogonal cutting
- cutting edge is inclined to axis of job.
- cutting edge is perpendicular to line of its motion.
- cutting edge is perpendicular to axis of job.
- cutting edge is parallel to line of its motion
Correct

Incorrect