Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 6 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Electrical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded? (Assistant Grade, 1995)
- 5279431
- 5978213
- 8251896
- 8543691
Correct

The alphabets are coded as follows :

D E L H I C A U T

7 3 5 4 1 8 2 9 6

So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5,I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus,

the code for CALICUT is 8251896.

Incorrect

The alphabets are coded as follows :

D E L H I C A U T

7 3 5 4 1 8 2 9 6

So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5,I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus,

the code for CALICUT is 8251896.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and LIFE is written as 8192.How is PILLER written in that code? (Railways, 1998)
- 318826
- 318286
- 618826
- 338816
Correct

The alphabets are coded as shown:

R I P L E F

6 1 3 8 2 9

So, in PILLER, P is coded as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2 and R as 6. Thus, the code for PILLER is 318826.

Incorrect

The alphabets are coded as shown:

R I P L E F

6 1 3 8 2 9

So, in PILLER, P is coded as 3, I as 1, L as 8, E as 2 and R as 6. Thus, the code for PILLER is 318826.
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
In a certain code language 24685 is written as 33776.how is 35791 written in that code?(P.O. EXAM,1989)
- 44826
- 44880
- 46682
- 44682
Correct

(CLERLY ,in the code letters at odd places are one place ahead and those at even piaces are one place before the corresponding letter in the word.

Incorrect

(CLERLY ,in the code letters at odd places are one place ahead and those at even piaces are one place before the corresponding letter in the word.
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
In a certain code language 35796 is written as 44887.how is 46823 written in that code? (P.O.EXAM 1991)
- 57914
- 55914
- 55934
- d)55714
Correct

the same pattern as in above question is followed i.e. 4 will be written as 5,6as 5,8as 9,2 as 1 and 3 as 4.so,the code becomes 55914.

Incorrect

the same pattern as in above question is followed i.e. 4 will be written as 5,6as 5,8as 9,2 as 1 and 3 as 4.so,the code becomes 55914.
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
If PALAM could be given the code number 43, what code number can be given to SANTACRUZ ? (Assistant Grade, 1995).
- 75
- 85
- 120
- 123
Correct

In the given code, A=1, B=2, C=3,...............,Z = 26 So, PALAM=16+1+12+1+13=43 Similarly, SANTACRUZ=19+1+14+20+1+3+18+21+26=123.

Incorrect

In the given code, A=1, B=2, C=3,...............,Z = 26 So, PALAM=16+1+12+1+13=43 Similarly, SANTACRUZ=19+1+14+20+1+3+18+21+26=123.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
FIND THE MISSING LETTERS IN THE FOLLOWING SERIES.

6.A,C,E,G___________ [Bank P.O 1992]
- I
- R
- S
- P
Correct

Incorrect
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

Who is to the immediate right of p?
- W
- T
- Q
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

W is the immediate right of p.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

Who is second to the right of S?
- V
- Z
- R
- W
- Data inadequate
Correct

Incorrect

Z is second to the right of S.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
P,Q,R,S,T,V,W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

Who is second to the right of Z?
- R
- P
- Q
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Q is second to the right of Z.
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

What is R's position with respect to T?
- Third to the left
- Fifth to the right
- Third to the right
- Fifth to the left
- Fourth to the left
Correct

Incorrect

R's position is fourth to the left with respect of T.
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person?
- TS
- PW
- QP
- VS
- RQ
Correct

Incorrect

VS (V is sitting immediate right of S)
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing the centre. T is third to the left of Z who is third to the left of P. S is third to the right of P and forth to the left of Q. R is second to the right of V.

Who is the fourth to the right of V?
- Q
- W
- R
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

P is fourth to the right of V.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Ramesh starts walking straight facing, south. After walking 30 m he turned to his right walked 25 m and turned to his left. Again after walking a distance of 10 m he turned to his left. Which-direction is he facing now?
- West
- East
- North-East
- South-West
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Town R is towards East of town H and is towards South of town K. Town K is towards which direction of town H?
- South-East
- South-West
- North-West
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Rajesh walked 5 m towards East, took a right turn and walked 10 m and again he took a right turn and walked 15 m. Which direction is he facing now?
- South
- West
- North
- South-West
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Manish walked 20 m towards West, took a right turn and walked 30 m. Again he took a right turn and walked 20 m. Towards which direction was he facing?
- North
- South
- East
- North-East
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Pole H is to the East of pole R and to the North of pole D. Pole D is in which direction with respect to pole R?
- North-East
- South-West
- North-West
- South-East
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Prakash walked 30 m towards West, took a left turn and walked 20 m. He again took a left turn and walked 30 m. he then took a right turn and stopped. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped?
- South
- North
- East
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements : All cards are boxes.

I. No box is slate.

II. Some slates are tiles.

Conclusions

I. No slate is card.

II. Some tiles are boxes.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-diagram will be
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some papers are arrows.

All arrows are sticks.

Some sticks are boards.

Conclusions :

I. Some boards are papers.

II. No board is paper.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-Diagram will be
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements

I.All ropes are tiles.

II. Some tiles are bangles.

III. All bangles are nails.

Conclusions

I. Some nails are ropes.

II. Some nails are tiles.
- If only Conclusion I follows.
- If only Conclusion II follows.
- If either conclusion I or II follows.
- If neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
- If both Conclusion I and II follow.
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-daigram will be
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be a
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding.commonly known facts.

Statements

All rings are phones.

All phones are spoons.

Some phones are files.

All files are covers.

Conclusions

I. Some files are rings.

II. Some covers are spoons.

III. Some spoons are phones.

IV. Some rings are covers.
- Only II and IV follow
- Only I, II and III follow
- Only I and II follow
- Only II and III follow
- Only II and III follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-diagram will be
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be a
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding.commonly known facts.

Statements

Some carpets are books.

All books are pens.

Some pens are cartoons.

All cartoons are notebooks.

Conclusions

I. Some cartons are carpets.

IL Some catroons are books.

III. Some pens are carpets.

IV. Some notebooks are pens.
- Only II and IV follow
- Only I, II and III follow
- Only I and II follow
- Only II and III follow
- Only II and III follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, the Venn-diagram will be
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
In a certain code GRANT is written as UOBSH and PRIDE is written as FEJSQ. How is SOLD written in that code?
- EPMT
- TPME
- EMPT
- CKNR
- ETPM
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- 19
- 17
- 13
- 27
- 37
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
How many meaningful English words can be made with the second, the fourth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word STUMBLE using each letter only once in each word?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following letter series based on the English alphabetical order?

BE GJ LO QT ?
- UX
- VY
- SV
- SV
- RU
- WZ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOVERNMENT each of which has as many letters berween them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as in the English alphabet?
- None
- one
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: F @ N, NδR, H @ R
Conclusions : I. HδN, II. F#R
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: M # T, T @ K, K$ N
Condusions: I.M#N, II.KδM
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: T%H, H $ W
Conclusions: I. W#T, II. W%T
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: NδK, K#D, D%M
Conclusions: I. MδK, II. D δ N
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
In the following questions, the symbols 6, %, $, # and @ are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below.
'P $ Q'means 'P is not smaller than Q'.
'P @ Q'means 'p is not greater than Q'.
'P δ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'.
'P # Q'means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'.
'P % Q'means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'.
Now, in each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?

Statements: J $ B, B % R, R δF
Conclusions: I.F#B, II.R@J
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate right of C?
- D
- G
- E
- B
- Data inadequate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is the only one person sitting between A and G?
- B
- D
- C
- E
- F
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same-order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C is third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is to the immediate left of D?
- B
- C
- A
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

Who is second to the left of C?
- B
- G
- F
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circle facing the centre, not necessarily in the same order. D is not second to the left of F but D is second to the right of A. C id third to the right of A and C is second to the left of G. B is not an immediate neighbour of G.

What is E s position with respect to D?
- To the immediate right
- To the immediate left
- Third to the right
- Second to the right
- Third to the left
Correct

Incorrect
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. ERWHKA
- 2@@6#7
- 7@@6#2
- 1@O6#t
- 2@@6#2
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. MPEKDU
- $42#s5
- s42#s$
- M2#s5
- U2s#$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. TMEIUF
- 7$2o/o8
- 7$2o/oV
- 9S2%67
- 9$2o/o0
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digit/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents group of letters based coding system and the condition given below and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly ,represents the group of letters, marks (5) i.e., 'None of these' as your answer.
Letters P M A E J K D R W H I U T F
Digits,/Symbols Conditions 4 $ I 2 3 # 5 @ @ 6 o/o 6 7 9
(i) Of the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes of both these are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both these are to be coded as per the code of the last letter.
(iii) If the first letter is vowel and the last letter is a consonant both these are to be coded as '*'.

Note: All the remaining letters are to be coded as per their original codes.

Q. JTAERI
- %712@3
- 3772@3
- x772@*
- o/o772@o/o
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
Which of the following among A, B, E and F may be the reason behind the school making such announcements before tho exam?
- Only B
- D and E
- Only F
- Only A
- E and F
Correct

Incorrect
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
Which of the following among A, B, D and F can be an immediate course of action for the invigilator?
- Only B
- A and D
- Only A
- D and F
- Only F
Correct

Incorrect
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
(Q. Nos. 47-50) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below, which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Which of the following have the sole right to mint coins of all denominations in India?
- Govt of India
- RBI
- State Bank of India
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
Operation ‘Megh Rahat’ is the name of relief operations carried out by the military and NDRF in
- Uttarakhand after flash floods
- Jammu & Kashmir after flash floods
- Himachal Pradesh after cloud burst
- Maharashtra after massive land slide
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
Which of the following banks in India has launched ‘Cardless Cash Withdrawal’ at ATMs facility recently? Under the facility, an account holder with the bank can transfer money to a mobile phone user in the country even without the latter having an account with any bank.
- HDFC bank
- Axis bank
- ICICI
- Kotak Mahindra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The 60th National School Games will be organised in Nov in which of the following states?
- Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh
- Punjab
- Kerala
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
FILA is the international body responsible for supervising which of the following games?
- Weightlifting
- Wrestling
- Archery
- Football
- None of these
Correct

FILA is the international body responsible for supervising which of the following games?

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
Which of the following regulators regulates money market in India?
- FMC
- SEBI
- RBI
- NABARD
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries is all set to hold a rerendum to break out from the United Kingdom?
- Scotland
- Iceland
- Wales
- Ireland
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
The govt approved the sale of share which of the following PSUs to garner a combined Rs 43,000 cr recently?
- NHPC
- ONGC
- CIL
- All the above
- Only2) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
India signed a memorandum understanding (MoU) for enhanced cooperation in the fields of traditional medicine like Ayurveda and Unani with which of the following countries recently?
- Bangladesh
- Iran
- Malaysia
- Indonesia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
approval for implementing a comprehensive Telecom Development Plan for the North-
Eastern Region recently. The proposal entails an estimated cost of over
- Rs 2,000 cr
- Rs 3,000 cr
- Rs 5,000 cr
- Rs 8,000 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Ajit Doval visited China to finalise the arrangements for Chinese President Xi Jinping’s visit to India. D o v a l
is________ in Govt of India.
- Principal Secretary to Prime Minister
- Finance Secretary
- Chief Economic Adviser
- National Security Adviser
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
The WHO has honoured which of the following countries for their excellent contributions in public health? They have been awarded with the newly instituted WHO South East Asia Regional Award for Excellence in Public Health.
- Timor-Leste
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
The Govt has approved Phase -V of UIDAI project which entails generation of 100 crore Aadhaar numbers by
- 2015
- 2016
- 2018
- 2020
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
The CCEA has cleared stake dilution in CIL, ONGC and NHPC through the Offer For Sale (OFS) route. Which of the
following is NOT correct in this regard?
- The 10 per cent stake sale in Coal India will garner Rs 23,000 cr
- The 5 per cent stake sale in ONGC will garner Rs 18,000 cr
- The 11.36 per cent stake sale in NHPC will garner Rs 2,800 cr
- It will help the govt meet its disinvestment target of Rs 43,425 cr for this fiscal.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
Firoza Begum died, recently, at the age of 84. She was an eminent________ Nazrul Sangeet singer.
- Afghan
- Pakistani
- Bangladeshi
- Indian
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
BARC scientists have developed ‘Ocu-Prosta seed’ using which of the following isotopes of Iodine to treat some rareforms of eye cancers?
- I - 125
- I -126 3)
- I - 127
- I - 144
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
The fifth unit at Rawatbhata atomic power plant ran continuously for 765 days at its full capacity of 220 Mwe which is the second highest operating record in the world. This plant is located in
- Rajasthan
- Maharashtra
- Tamil Nadu
- Odisha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
The Bardarbunga volcano was in news as it erupted recently. This volcano is situated in which of the following countries?
- Iceland
- Norway
- Canada
- Italy
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has launched Gaofen-2 satellite which is a high-definition Earth observation satellite?
It is able to see a one-meter-long object in full color.
- Israel
- France
- China
- Japan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The govt approved the much awaited Ken-Betwa river link which will benefit two states in terms of meeting irrigation,
drinking water and electricity needs of people. Which are these two states?
- Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
- Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
- Rajasthan and Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
As per the present norms, the central govt is authorised for minting of coin of denomination not higher than
- 1) Rs 10
- 2) Rs 50
- 3) Rs 100
- Rs 1,000
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
Which of the following state govt has decided to impose one rupee cess on purchase of every packet of cigarette and
bottle of liquor and the revenue collected from this will be used to establish an Urban Transport Fund to promote public
transport?
- Gujarat
- Kerala
- Delhi
- Tamil Nadu
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
According to UN report , India has second-highest number of child marriages. Which of the following countries has the
highest rate of child marriage?
- 1) Afghanistan
- Myanmar
- Nepal
- Bangladesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
Trade and Development report 2015, India’s economy is poised to grow at________during 2014.
- 5.1 per cent
- 5.3 per cent
- 5.6 per cent
- 5.9 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
Oscar Pistorius, the gold medalist in London Olympics in 2012 who has been tried for killing his girlfriend, is a handicapped
athlete of
- South Africa
- England
- Australia
- US
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
As announced by the Election Commission recently, state assembly poll in Haryana and Maharashtra will be held on
- 11 Oct
- 2) 13 Oct
- 3) 15 Oct
- 4) 19 Oct
- 5) None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The upper age limit for managing directors (MDs) and chief executive officers (CEOs) and other whole-time director of banks in the private sector has been fixed by the RBI, recently, at
- 60 years
- 63 years
- 65 years
- 70 years
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
The Chinese President Xi Jinping, during his visit to India, will present Friendship awards to the family of who among the
following for his service in China during the Sino-Japanese war?
- Dwarkanath Kotnis
- BR Deepak
- Rewi Alley
- Ma Haide
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
The Science and Technology Ministry has announced a special promotion scheme KIRAN. This scheme is aimed at
eliminating parity in the field of science and technology by promoting
- handicapped
- women scientists
- tribals
- scientists from all SAARC countries
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been appointed as Executive Director in World Bank recently? The Executive Directors
are responsible for the conduct of the general operations of the World Bank and exercise all the powers delegated to
them by the Boards of Governors.
- Subhash Chandra Garg
- C Rangarajan
- Pranab Bardhan
- Kaushik Basu
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Who among the following won the men’s singles title of the Indonesian Masters Grand Prix Gold badminton tournament
recently?
- Firman Abdul Kholik
- HS Prannoy
- Srikanth Kidambi
- Sourabh Varma
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The new Road Safety and Transport Bill 2014 was released recently for comments from the public. Which of the following is NOT correct about the proposals of the Bill?
- Inebriated school bus drivers will be fined Rs 50,000 with imprisonment for three years for the first offence.
- The repeat drunk driving offender will be fined with Rs 1 lakh or imprisonment up to three years or both besides a life time license cancellation.
- The red light jumping will be fined with Rs 15,000 for the third offence along with cancellation of the driving licence.
- The Bill proposes new ‘golden hour’ policy to provide immediate relief to accident victims and help save lakhs of lives.
- To ensure offenders are tracked down and prosecuted, the Bill suggests a single-window automated driving licence systems.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
The soon to be released book ‘And Then One Day’ is the autobiography of who among the following?
- Naseeruddin Shah
- Anupam Kher
- Om Puri
- Amitabh Bachchan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been chosen to lead US-led global coalition against ISIS militants active in Syria and Iraq?
- James Mattis
- David Petraeus
- Paula Broadwell
- John Allen
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
The world suicide prevention day (WSPD) is an awareness day observed on which of the following dates every year?
- 8 Sep
- 10 Sep
- 12 Sep
- 14 Sep
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
Which of the following pairs won the men’s doubles title of the 2014 US Open tennis tournament?
- Marcel Granollers and Marc Lopez
- Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
- Jurgen Melzer and Marc Lopez
- Roger Federer and Marcel Granollers
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
David cup is associated Which of the following games?
- Tennis
- Badminton
- Snooker
- Hockey
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
China has been objecting India’s presence in South China Sea. India is engaged with Vietnam in the disputed South China Sea in which of the following activities?
- Oil exploration
- Military exercise
- Port development
- Air base development
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
What is India’s ranking in the list of 24 economies on Creative Productivity Index, released by the Asian Development Bank and Economist Intelligence Unit recently?
- 13th
- 14th
- 15th
- 19th
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
Hindi Diwas is celebrated in India to show the importance of Hindi language in the country on
- 05 Sep
- 14 Sep
- 15 Sep
- 19 Sep
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
The International Literacy Day is celebrated on
- 8 Sep
- 10 Sep
- 12 Sep
- 16 Sep
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
Which of the following states will host the Global Agro meet in Nov this year? This event will be participated by eight
countries?
- Gujarat
- Sikkim
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Kerala
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Krishan Kant Paul was sworn-in as the new governor of Manipur state recently. Who among the following is the present chief minister of the state?
- Radhabinod Koijam
- Okram Ibobi Singh
- Rishang Keishing
- Neiphiu Rio
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
Doordarshan celebrates its anniversary on 15 Sep every year. This public service broadcaster was set up in which of the
following years?
- 1953
- 1959
- 1975
- 1981
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
The honourable President Pranab Mukherjee urged to bring literacy rate of the country on par with world’s leading
societies recently. What is the average adult (people aged 15 and above) literacy rate of the world?
- 84 per cent
- 80 per cent
- 74 per cent
- 64 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The patent office of which of the following countries has become the first among intellectual property offices across the
world to achieve ultimate transparency as the work happening in this office is being thrown open to the world?
- India
- Germany
- Japan
- France
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
The prestigious Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Awards were announced for the year 2012 recently. Which of the following is the winner of Best of All Awards?
- Rail Wheel factory, Bangalore
- Tata Business Support Services, Hyderabad
- Sakthi Masala, Erode, Tamil Nadu
- Elin Appliances, Solan, Himachal Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
As per the data of the 6th Economic Census Report 2013, which of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of hired workers among all states including in sectors like education and health?
- Maharashtra
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh
- Karnataka
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
A professor from Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) is among 10 award winners of the 8th Special Book Award of China.
Name the professor who has translated a number of literary works from Chinese into Bengali, Hindi and English over the
last 25 years.
- Geeta
- Devendra Rawat
- Manik Lal Bhattacharya
- Priyadarsi Mukherji
- Sabaree Mitra
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
India's first will come up at Mithapur coast in which of the following states? The Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) and Tata Chemicals Limited (TCL) have signed a MoU in this regard with the state.
- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- Kerala
- Karnataka
- Tamil Nadu
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
Steady state is reached with S open. S is closed at t = 0. What is value of the current I at t = 0.?
- 1 A
- 2 A
- 3 A
- 4 A
Correct

Under steady state condition i.e. at t < 0

Capacitor will behave as open circuit at steady state so $V_{\infty }=V_{R2\Omega}=4\times 2=8$ At t > 0 is circuit

Using super position theorem

I = $I_{1}+I_{2}$

Where ,

$I_{1}$ = Current due to 4A source

Where , $V_{\infty}=8V$ is short circuit

$I_{2}$ = Current due to $V_{\infty}=8V$

When 4A is open circuit

$\frac{4\times 2}{2+2}=\frac{8}{2+2}$ = 4A

Incorrect

Under steady state condition i.e. at t < 0

Capacitor will behave as open circuit at steady state so $V_{\infty }=V_{R2\Omega}=4\times 2=8$ At t > 0 is circuit

Using super position theorem

I = $I_{1}+I_{2}$

Where ,

$I_{1}$ = Current due to 4A source

Where , $V_{\infty}=8V$ is short circuit

$I_{2}$ = Current due to $V_{\infty}=8V$

When 4A is open circuit

$\frac{4\times 2}{2+2}=\frac{8}{2+2}$ = 4A
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
The inertia constant of a 100MVA, 11KV water wheel generator is 4. The energy stored in the rotor at the synchronous speed is
- 400MJ
- 400KJ
- 25MJ
- 25KJ
Correct

Mega joules of energy stored in the rotating mass of the alternator

$\frac{Synchronous\: space\: E}{Rating\: in\: MVA\: of\: the\: alternator,S}$

Thus 4 = E/100

Therefore E = 400 MJ

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
If the fault current is 2000A, the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400/5 the plug setting multiplier will be
- 25A
- 15A
- 50A
- 10A
Correct

The secondary current is $\frac{200\times 5}{400}$ = 25A

Now a secondary current of 5 x 0.5 = 2.5 A corresponds to a PSM of 1. Therefore the current of 25Ahas PSM of 10.

Incorrect

The secondary current is $\frac{200\times 5}{400}$ = 25A

Now a secondary current of 5 x 0.5 = 2.5 A corresponds to a PSM of 1. Therefore the current of 25Ahas PSM of 10.
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
The time taken for a surge to travel a 900KM long overhead transmission
- 6s
- 4 s
- 0.03 s
- 0.003 s
Correct

$t=\frac{900\times 10^{3}}{3\times 10^{8}}$ = 0.003s

Incorrect

$t=\frac{900\times 10^{3}}{3\times 10^{8}}$ = 0.003s
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
The propagation constant of a transmission lines is 0.15 x 10-3 + 1.5 x 10-3. The wavelength of the traveling wave is
- $\frac{1.5\times 10^{-3}}{2\pi}$
- $\frac{2\pi}{1.5\times 10^{-3}}$
- $\frac{\pi}{1.5\times 10^{-3}}$
- None of these
Correct

Since $\alpha +j\beta$

= (0.15 + j 1.5) $\times 10^{-3}$

Wavelength = $\frac{2\pi}{\beta}=\frac{2\pi}{1.5\times 10^{-3}}$

Incorrect

Since $\alpha +j\beta$

= (0.15 + j 1.5) $\times 10^{-3}$

Wavelength = $\frac{2\pi}{\beta}=\frac{2\pi}{1.5\times 10^{-3}}$
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
Signal flow graph is used to find
- Stability of the system
- Controllability of the system
- Transfer function of the system
- Poles of the system
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
The ac motor used in servo application is a
- Single phase induction motor
- Two phase induction motor
- Three phase induction motor
- Synchronous motor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
A synchro-transmitter receiver unit is a
- two phase ac device
- 3-phase ac device
- dc device
- single phase ac device
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
Torque developed by the armature of a dc motor is proportional to which one of the following.
- (Back emf) $\times$ (Armature current)
- (Magnetic flux per pole) (Armature current)
- (Back emf) $\times$ (Magnetic flux per pole)
- (Back emf) / (Magnetic flux per pole)
Correct

Torque (T) developed by armature of a dc motor $T\propto \phi I_{0}$ Where $\phi$ (Magnetic flux per pole)

and $I_{a}$ = Armature current

Incorrect

Torque (T) developed by armature of a dc motor $T\propto \phi I_{0}$ Where $\phi$ (Magnetic flux per pole)

and $I_{a}$ = Armature current
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
Which one of the following transducers is used to obtain the output positions in a position control system?
- Strain Gauge
- Load cell
- Synchro
- Thermistor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Meggar is used to measure
- harmonics
- frequency
- voltage
- insulation resistance
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
A digital voltmeter measures
- peak value
- peak to peak value
- rms value
- average value
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
Bridge used for measurement of capacitance is
- Anderson’s bridge
- Hay’s bridge
- Schering bridge
- Max well’s bridge
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
Four input multiplexer has
- Four outputs
- Three outputs
- Two outputs
- One output
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
A 10 pole, 25 Hz alternator is directly coupled to and is driven by 60 Hz synchronous motor?
- 48
- 12
- 24
- 16
Correct

According to question Number of poles of alternator = 10

Synchronous speed of alternator = Synchronous speed of motor

$\frac{120\times f_{g}}{p_{g}}=\frac{120\times f_{m}}{P_{m}}$

$\frac{120\times 25}{10}=\frac{120\times 60}{P_{m}}$

$\therefore P_{m}=24$

Incorrect

According to question Number of poles of alternator = 10

Synchronous speed of alternator = Synchronous speed of motor

$\frac{120\times f_{g}}{p_{g}}=\frac{120\times f_{m}}{P_{m}}$

$\frac{120\times 25}{10}=\frac{120\times 60}{P_{m}}$

$\therefore P_{m}=24$
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
In a microprocessor, the address of the next instruction to be executed is stored in
- Stack pointer
- Address catch
- Program counter
- General purpose register
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
Semiconductor has a resistivity range from
- $10^{-4}-10^{3}\Omega -m$
- $10^{-3}-10^{2}\Omega -m$
- $10^{-4}-10^{7}\Omega -m$
- $10^{-2}-10^{7}\Omega -m$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
Find the conductivity of Ge
Given $\mu _{n}$ = 3800 cm2/v-s; $\mu _{p}$ = 1800 cm2/V-s ni = $2.5\times10^{-3}$ at 300 K.
- 0.0224 s/cm
- 1.025 s/cm
- 2.025 s/cm
- 3.0256 s/cm
Correct

Since n = p = $n_{l}$

= $2.5\times 10^{-3}/cm^{-3}$

Hence $\sigma =nq(\mu _{n}+\mu _{p})$

$(2.5\times 10^{-3})(1.6\times 10^{-19})$

(3800 + 1800) = 0.0224 s / cm

Incorrect

Since n = p = $n_{l}$

= $2.5\times 10^{-3}/cm^{-3}$

Hence $\sigma =nq(\mu _{n}+\mu _{p})$

$(2.5\times 10^{-3})(1.6\times 10^{-19})$

(3800 + 1800) = 0.0224 s / cm
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
A crystal has L = 0.33 H, C = 0.065 pF then the series resonant frequency is
- 4.08 MHz
- 2.067 MHz
- 1.087 MHz
- 0.087 MHz
Correct

Since series resonant frequency

$f_{g}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$

$\frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{0.33\times 0.065\times 10^{-12}}}$ = 1.087 MHz

Incorrect

Since series resonant frequency

$f_{g}=\frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}$

$\frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot \frac{1}{\sqrt{0.33\times 0.065\times 10^{-12}}}$ = 1.087 MHz
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Calculate the minimum voltage gain of oscillators for a colpitts oscillators with C1 = 0.004 µF and C2 = 0.03 µF.
- 0.75
- 75
- 225
- 3.75
Correct

Since minimum voltage gain $\geq \frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}$

$AV=\frac{0.03\times 10^{-6}}{0.004\times 10^{-6}}\geq 75$

Incorrect

Since minimum voltage gain $\geq \frac{C_{2}}{C_{1}}$

$AV=\frac{0.03\times 10^{-6}}{0.004\times 10^{-6}}\geq 75$
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
Electronic instruments for measurement of non-electrical physical parameter use
- Sensor
- Transducer
- CRO
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
Television is the transmission and reception of motion picture over
- radio waves
- sound waves
- electromagnetic wave
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
Power electronic controller cycloconverter is used in
- Aircraft supplies
- Electric car
- Induction heating
- Rolling mill drive
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
Which power electronic controller is used for uninterruptible power supply
- Chopper
- Voltage controller
- Controlled rectifier
- Inverter
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
When cathode is positive with respect to anode in an SCR the number of blocked p-n junction is
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
In a thyristor, anode current is made up of
- electrons only
- electrons or holes
- electrons and holes
- holes only
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
An MCT has three terminals called
- anode, cathode, gate
- collector, emitter and gate
- drain source and base
- drain, source and gate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
Secondary breakdown occurs in
- MOSFET but not in BJT
- both MOSFET and BJT
- BJT but not in MOSFET
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
An ac voltage v = 300 sin 300t is applied to a thyristor having a forward break over voltage of 200V. Calculate the time for which the thyristor remain off.
- 200.15 milli seconds
- 150.78 milli seconds
- 139.40 milli seconds
- 120.54 milli seconds
Correct

Since v = 300 sin400t or, 200 = 300 sin300t from which.

$t=\frac{1}{30}\times \sin^{-1}\frac{200}{300}$ = 0.1394 sec = 139.4 Milli-sec

Incorrect

Since v = 300 sin400t or, 200 = 300 sin300t from which.

$t=\frac{1}{30}\times \sin^{-1}\frac{200}{300}$ = 0.1394 sec = 139.4 Milli-sec
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
Calculate the frequency at which the phase angle produced by the RC stage in a phase-shift oscillator is 45° for
R = 1 KΩ, C = 500 pF.
- $3.2\times10^{5}$
- $4.5\times10^{5}$
- $5\times10^{5}$
- $10\times10^{5}$
Correct

Since phase angle is given by

$\tan \phi =\frac{1}{2\pi fCR}$ so that

$f=\frac{1}{2\pi CR\tan \phi}=\frac{1}{2\times 3.14\times 500\times 10^{-12}\times 1\times 1000\times \tan 45^{\circ}}$

= $3.2\times 10^{5}$ Hz

Incorrect

Since phase angle is given by

$\tan \phi =\frac{1}{2\pi fCR}$ so that

$f=\frac{1}{2\pi CR\tan \phi}=\frac{1}{2\times 3.14\times 500\times 10^{-12}\times 1\times 1000\times \tan 45^{\circ}}$

= $3.2\times 10^{5}$ Hz
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
A power transmission line of surge resistance R0 is terminated in a resistance load RL. The reflection coefficient is equal to
- $\frac{R_{L}-R_{0}}{R_{L}+R_{0}}$
- $\frac{R_{L}R_{0}}{R_{L}+R_{0}}$
- $\frac{R_{L}+R_{0}}{R_{L}-R_{0}}$
- $\frac{R_{L}R_{0}}{R_{L}-R_{0}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
For the circuit shown, what is the voltage V if the source voltage is reduced by 50%?
- E + IR
- E - IR
- $\frac{E}{2}+IR$
- $\frac{E}{2}-IR$
Correct

Voltage V is the response of source i.e I and E

V = E - IR

$V=\frac{E}{2}-IR$

V = $\frac{E}{2}$ - IR

Incorrect

Voltage V is the response of source i.e I and E

V = E - IR

$V=\frac{E}{2}-IR$

V = $\frac{E}{2}$ - IR
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
The function of guard ring transmission line is
- to reduce the transmission losses
- to reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
- to increase the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
Voltage applied in a circuit acts as
- energy
- mass of charged particles
- heat flow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
Best conductor amongst the following is
- Porcelain
- China clay
- Graphite
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
Protons are
- positively charged particles
- negatively charged particles
- neutral
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
Cyclotron is suitable for accelerating which particles?
- Water molecules
- $O_{2}$ molecules
- Protons
- Electrons
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
For a higher power output we use
- three phase generator
- two phase generator
- single phase generator
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
Which network has its own source or generator?
- Passive network
- Active network
- Linear network
- Non-linear network
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
A choke coil consists of several turns of insulated copper wire wound over a laminated
- soft iron core
- copper core
- soft aluminum core
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
Negative sequence relay is used in
- feeder
- transformer
- generator
- long overhead line
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
A DC voltmeter has a sensitivity of 1000 Ω/volt. When it measures half full scale in 100V range, the current “through the voltmeter is
- 100mA
- 1mA
- 0.5mA
- 50mA
Correct

Since sensitivity of DC voltmeter is 1000 $\Omega$ /volt of half scale in 100 v range i.e 50V current through the voltmeter is

I = $\frac{50}{1000}$ = 50mA

Incorrect

Since sensitivity of DC voltmeter is 1000 $\Omega$ /volt of half scale in 100 v range i.e 50V current through the voltmeter is

I = $\frac{50}{1000}$ = 50mA
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
One conductor has charge 4 coulomb and voltage 2 volt then the capacitance.
- 8
- 4 F
- 2 F
- 1 F
Correct

Since , Q = CV

C = $\frac{Q}{V}=\frac{4}{2}=2F$

Incorrect

Since , Q = CV

C = $\frac{Q}{V}=\frac{4}{2}=2F$
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
Energy stored in a capacitor when charge is 8 coulomb and voltage
- 16 Joules
- 8 Joules
- 4 Joules
- 2 Joules
Correct

Since Energy stored in a capacitor

W = $s\frac{1}{2}CV^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{Q^{2}}{C}=\frac{1}{2}QV$

= $\frac{1}{2}\times 8\times 2$ = 8 Joules

Incorrect

Since Energy stored in a capacitor

W = $s\frac{1}{2}CV^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{Q^{2}}{C}=\frac{1}{2}QV$

= $\frac{1}{2}\times 8\times 2$ = 8 Joules
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
The resistivity of semi conductor lies in between
- $10^{-4}-0.1\Omega$
- $10^{-4}-0.1\Omega$ m
- $10^{-2}-0.1\Omega$
- $10^{-3}-0.1\Omega$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
The control system components servo-motor is used in
- error-detector
- transducer
- actuator
- power amplifier
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
Stepper motor is used in
- cassette tape recorder
- ceiling fan
- hand drills
- digital control system
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.
- PROM contains a programmable AND array and a fixed OR array
- PLA contains a fixed AND array and a programmable OR array
- PROM contains a fixed AND array and programmable OR array
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
Power gain of a CE amplifier can be
- positive or negative
- is always positive
- is always negative
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
Emitter follower employs
- voltage shunt feedback
- voltage series feedback
- current shunt feedback
- current series feedback
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
power MOSFET has three terminals called
- collector, emitter and base
- drain, source and base
- drain, source and gate
- Collector, emitter and gate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
Choose the correct statement.
- MOSFET has positive temperature coefficient whereas BJT has negative TC
- Both MOSFET and BJT have positive TC
- Both MOSFET and BJT have negative TC
- MOSFET has negative TC whereas BJT has positive TC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
An SCR can be brought to forward conducting state with gate-circuit open when the applied voltage exceeds
- the forward break over voltage
- reverse breakdown voltage
- 1.5V
- peak non-repetitive off state-voltage
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
For normal SCR, turn-on time is
- less than turn-off time tq
- more than tq
- equal to tq
- half of tq
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
During forward blocking state, a thyristor is associated with
- large current, low voltage
- low current, large voltage
- medium current, large voltage
- low current, medium voltage
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
In a thyristor, ratio of taking current to holding current is
- 0.4
- 1.0
- 2.5
- 6.0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
When a unit impulse voltage is applied to an inductor of 1H, the energy supplied by the source is
- 0 J
- $\infty$
- $\frac{1}{2}$ J
- None of these
Correct

The current that flow is given by

V(S) = =SLI(S)

I = SI(s) I(s) = $\frac{1}{S}$ = 1A

Energy supplied $\frac{1}{2}LI^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\times 1\times 1=\frac{1}{2}J$

Incorrect

The current that flow is given by

V(S) = =SLI(S)

I = SI(s) I(s) = $\frac{1}{S}$ = 1A

Energy supplied $\frac{1}{2}LI^{2}=\frac{1}{2}\times 1\times 1=\frac{1}{2}J$
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
Two coils in differential connection have self inductance of 2mH and 4mH and a mutual inductance of 0.15 mH. The equivalent inductance of the combination is
- 5.7mH
- 5.85mH
- 6mH
- 6.15mH
Correct

When two inductor connected in series the effective inductance is

$L_{eff}=L_{1}+L_{2}\pm 2m$

In this case $L_{eff}$

= $L_{1}+L_{2}$ - 2M

= 2 + 4 - 2 $\times$ 0.15 = 5.7 mH

Incorrect

When two inductor connected in series the effective inductance is

$L_{eff}=L_{1}+L_{2}\pm 2m$

In this case $L_{eff}$

= $L_{1}+L_{2}$ - 2M

= 2 + 4 - 2 $\times$ 0.15 = 5.7 mH
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
Two capacitors of value 4 µF and 2 µF are connected in parallel Calculate the equivalent capacitance of the capacitor.
- 6 µF
- 4 µF
- 2 µF
- 1 µF
Correct

Since capacitors are in parallel

$C_{eq}=C_{1}+C_{2}$ = (4 + 2) $\mu F$ = 6 $\mu F$

Incorrect

Since capacitors are in parallel

$C_{eq}=C_{1}+C_{2}$ = (4 + 2) $\mu F$ = 6 $\mu F$
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
The velocity of a traveling electromagnetic wave in free space is given by
- $\mu _{0}\varepsilon _{0}$
- $\sqrt{\mu _{0}\varepsilon _{0}}$
- $\frac{1}{\mu _{0}\varepsilon _{0}}$
- None of these
Correct

Since the velocity of a traveling electromagnetic wave in free space is

$\frac{1}{\mu _{0}\epsilon }$

Incorrect

Since the velocity of a traveling electromagnetic wave in free space is

$\frac{1}{\mu _{0}\epsilon }$
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
The widely used code in data communication is
- 8 bit ASCII
- 7 bit ASCII
- EBCDIC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
Which one of the following can be used to change data from special code to temporal code?
- shift resistors
- counters
- A/D converters
- combinational circuits
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
A cary look ahead adder is frequency used to addition because it
- is faster
- is more accurate
- uses fewer gates
- costs less
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number E5 is
- 279
- 229
- 427
- 3000
Correct

Since E corresponds to decanal 14 or $14_{10}$

$E_{5}=14_{10}\times 16^{1}+5_{10}\times 16^{0}=14\times 16+5\times 1$ = 229

Incorrect

Since E corresponds to decanal 14 or $14_{10}$

$E_{5}=14_{10}\times 16^{1}+5_{10}\times 16^{0}=14\times 16+5\times 1$ = 229
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
The minimum number of HAND gates required to implement Boolean function

$A+A\overline{B}+A\overline{B}C$
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
Correct

Since Equation The output is taken directly from A and hence O.

$A+A\overline{B}(1+C)$

$A+A\overline{B}=A(1+\overline{B})$ = A

The output is taken directly from A and 0

Incorrect

Since Equation The output is taken directly from A and hence O.

$A+A\overline{B}(1+C)$

$A+A\overline{B}=A(1+\overline{B})$ = A

The output is taken directly from A and 0
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
The type of single-phase induction motor having the highest power factor at full load is
- shaded pole type
- split-phase type
- capacitor-start type
- capacitor-run type
Correct

Capacitor-run type motor has better running power factor and efficiency and a quiter smoother operation. It is used for both easy and hard to start loads. Moder application of such motors are ceiling fans, blowers etc.

Incorrect

Capacitor-run type motor has better running power factor and efficiency and a quiter smoother operation. It is used for both easy and hard to start loads. Moder application of such motors are ceiling fans, blowers etc.
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
A lightning stroke discharge impulse current of 10 kA (peak) on a 400 kV transmission line having surge impedance of 250Ω. The magnitude of transient over voltage traveling waves in either direction assuming equal distribution from the point of lightning strike will be
- 1250 kV
- 1650 kV
- 2500 kV
- 2900 kV
Correct

The impulse current of 10 -KA (peak) will be equally divided in both directions since there is equal distribution on both sides.
Then, magnitude of transient over voltage

$\left(\frac{10}{2}\right)$ KA $\times$ 250 = 1250 KV

Incorrect

The impulse current of 10 -KA (peak) will be equally divided in both directions since there is equal distribution on both sides.
Then, magnitude of transient over voltage

$\left(\frac{10}{2}\right)$ KA $\times$ 250 = 1250 KV
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
A-3 phase generator reted at 110 MVA, 11 kV is connected through circuit breakers to a transformer. The generator is having direct axis sub-transient reactance X’d = 19%, transient reactance = X’d = 26% and synchronous reactance = 13%. The generator is operating at no load and rated voltage when a three phase short circuit fault occurs between the breakers and the transformer. The magnitude of initial symmetrical rms current in the breakers will be
- 4.44kA
- 22.20 kA
- 30.37 kA
- 38.45 kA
Correct

The generator is operating at no-load and rated voltage So, Eg Equation

$\frac{E_{g}}{X''d}=\frac{1\angle 0^{\circ}}{j0.19}$

I = 5.26 $\angle -90^{\circ}$

Base current = $\frac{(MVA)Base}{\sqrt{3}(KV)Base}$

$\frac{(100}{\sqrt{3}\times 11}$

|1| = 5.26 $\times$ Base Current

$5.26\times \frac{(100}{\sqrt{3}\times 11}$ KA = 30 . 37 KA

Incorrect

The generator is operating at no-load and rated voltage So, Eg Equation

$\frac{E_{g}}{X''d}=\frac{1\angle 0^{\circ}}{j0.19}$

I = 5.26 $\angle -90^{\circ}$

Base current = $\frac{(MVA)Base}{\sqrt{3}(KV)Base}$

$\frac{(100}{\sqrt{3}\times 11}$

|1| = 5.26 $\times$ Base Current

$5.26\times \frac{(100}{\sqrt{3}\times 11}$ KA = 30 . 37 KA
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
A PMMC voltmeter is connected across a series combination of a DC voltage source V1 = 2V and AC voltage source V2(t) 3 sin (4t) V. The meter reads
- 2V
- 5V
- 10V
- 15V
Correct

Total voltage across PMMC = $V_{T}=V_{1}+V_{2}$

= 4 + 3 sin (4t) V

PMMC read average value

Average value of $V_{1} $= 1V Average value of $V_{1}$ = 0V

Average value of $V_{T}
Total voltage across PMMC = $V_{T}=V_{1}+V_{2}$

= 4 + 3 sin (4t) V

PMMC read average value

Average value of $V_{1} $= 1V Average value of $V_{1}$ = 0V

Average value of $V_{T}" /> $= 2V SO PMMC reads = 2V </div> <div style="display: none;" class="wpProQuiz_incorrect"> Incorrect Total voltage across PMMC = <img src='https://questionpaper.org/wp-content/plugins/latex/cache/tex_3b0f08f0a297bb0299c4f7d26b86f31b.gif' style='vertical-align: middle; border: none; ' class='tex' alt="V_{T}=V_{1}+V_{2}" /><script type='math/tex'>V_{T}=V_{1}+V_{2}$

= 4 + 3 sin (4t) V

PMMC read average value

Average value of $V_{1} $= 1V Average value of $V_{1}$ = 0V

Average value of $V_{T} = 2V

SO PMMC reads = 2V
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
Assuming that the diodes are ideal in figure, the current in diode D1 is
- 8 mA
- 5 mA
- 0 mA
- -3 mA
Correct

If $D_{1}$ is ‘ON’ Kirchoffs law is not satisfied

$\therefore D_{1}$ is off and $D_{2}$

$\therefore$ 1 = 0 mA

Incorrect

If $D_{1}$ is ‘ON’ Kirchoffs law is not satisfied

$\therefore D_{1}$ is off and $D_{2}$

$\therefore$ 1 = 0 mA
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
The transconductance gm of the transistor shown in figure is 10 mS. The value of the input resistance RIN is
Figure
- 10.0 kΩ
- 8.3 kΩ
- 5.0 kΩ
- 2.5 kΩ
Correct

Input Resistance $\frac{h_{fe}}{g_{m}}=\frac{\beta}{g_{m}}=\frac{50}{10\times 10^{-3}}=5K\Omega$

But overall input resistance seen from source is $R_{IN}=10||10||5$

$R_{IN}=2.5K\Omega$

Incorrect

Input Resistance $\frac{h_{fe}}{g_{m}}=\frac{\beta}{g_{m}}=\frac{50}{10\times 10^{-3}}=5K\Omega$

But overall input resistance seen from source is $R_{IN}=10||10||5$

$R_{IN}=2.5K\Omega$
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
A solid sphere made of insulating material has a radius R and has a total charge Q distributed uniformely in its volume. What is the magnitude of the electric field intensity, E, at a distance r (0 < r < R) inside the sphere?
- $\frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}}\frac{Qr}{R^{3}}$
- $\frac{3}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}}\frac{Qr}{R^{3}}$
- $\frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}}\frac{Qr}{R^{2}}$
- $\frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}}\frac{Qr}{R}$
Correct

By Gauss's theorem

$\int_{s}\overrightarrow{\epsilon}\times \overrightarrow{ds}=\frac{Q_{enclose}}{\epsilon _{0}}$

Where $Q_{enclose}$ in radios r

$\int_{s}\overrightarrow{\epsilon}\cdot \overrightarrow{ds}=\frac{Q}{\frac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}}\times \frac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}\times \frac{1}{\epsilon _{0}}$

$E(4\pi r^{2})=\frac{Qr^{3}}{R^{2}}\times \frac{1}{\epsilon _{0}}$

$\therefore E=\frac{Qr}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}R^{3}}$

Incorrect

By Gauss's theorem

$\int_{s}\overrightarrow{\epsilon}\times \overrightarrow{ds}=\frac{Q_{enclose}}{\epsilon _{0}}$

Where $Q_{enclose}$ in radios r

$\int_{s}\overrightarrow{\epsilon}\cdot \overrightarrow{ds}=\frac{Q}{\frac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}}\times \frac{4}{3}\pi R^{3}\times \frac{1}{\epsilon _{0}}$

$E(4\pi r^{2})=\frac{Qr^{3}}{R^{2}}\times \frac{1}{\epsilon _{0}}$

$\therefore E=\frac{Qr}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}R^{3}}$
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
A three- phase diode bridge rectifier is fed from a 400 V RMS, 50 Hz, three- phase AC source. If the load is purely resistive, then peak instantaneous output voltage is equal to
- $400\sqrt{2}$ V
- 200 V
- $200\sqrt{2}$ V
- $100\sqrt{2}$ V
Correct

Maximum value of input voltage
Vm = 400,√2
Since load is purely resistive, therefore peak instantaneous output voltage
Vm = 400√2

Incorrect

Maximum value of input voltage
Vm = 400,√2
Since load is purely resistive, therefore peak instantaneous output voltage
Vm = 400√2
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
X = $(X_{1},X_{2},....X_{n})^{T}$
is an n - tuple nonzero vector. The nx n matrix V = xxT
- has rank zero
- has rank 1
- is orthogonal
- has rank n
Correct

The n $\times$ n matrix V = XX' has rank n

Incorrect

The n $\times$ n matrix V = XX' has rank n
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
A transmission line has R, L, G and C distributed parameters per unit length of the line. Y is the propagation constant of the lines. Which expression given the characteristic impedance of the line
- $\frac{\gamma}{R+j\omega l}$
- $\frac{R+j\omega l}{\gamma}$
- $\frac{\gamma}{R-j\omega l}$
- None of these
Correct

$Z_{0}=\sqrt{\frac{R+j\omega L}{G+j\omega C}}$ and $\gamma =\sqrt{(R+j\omega l)(G+j\omega C)}$

$\frac{R+j\omega \omega L}{\gamma }=\frac{R+j\omega l}{\sqrt{(R+j\omega L)(G+j\omega C)}}$

$\sqrt{\frac{R+j\omega L}{G+j\omega C}}$

Incorrect

$Z_{0}=\sqrt{\frac{R+j\omega L}{G+j\omega C}}$ and $\gamma =\sqrt{(R+j\omega l)(G+j\omega C)}$

$\frac{R+j\omega \omega L}{\gamma }=\frac{R+j\omega l}{\sqrt{(R+j\omega L)(G+j\omega C)}}$

$\sqrt{\frac{R+j\omega L}{G+j\omega C}}$
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
Which one of the following statement is correct?
The Hall coefficient of intrinsic semiconductor is
- Positive
- Negative
- zero
- Infinite
Correct

$R_{H}=\frac{1}{e.n_{n}}=-\frac{1}{e.e_{n}}$

Hence Large Hall coefficients correspond to law carrier concentration i.e, intrinsic semiconductor which does not have free carrier at 0°K.

Incorrect

$R_{H}=\frac{1}{e.n_{n}}=-\frac{1}{e.e_{n}}$

Hence Large Hall coefficients correspond to law carrier concentration i.e, intrinsic semiconductor which does not have free carrier at 0°K.
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Consider the following statements about the equality factor of a R-L-C circuit:
1. For the critically damped circuit , the equality factor Q = 1/2
2. Higher the value of quality factor higher will be the bandwidth of the circuit.
3. Higher the value of quality factor lower will be the bandwidth of the circuit.
4. for under damped circuits the value of Q is greater than 1/2
- 1 and 2
- 1 and 3
- 2 and 4
- 1, 3 and 4
Correct

$Q=R\sqrt{\frac{C}{L}}$ and Q = $\frac{f_{0}}{Bandwidth}$

For critical damping L = $4R^{0}C$

For under damping L < $4R^{0}C$

Incorrect

$Q=R\sqrt{\frac{C}{L}}$ and Q = $\frac{f_{0}}{Bandwidth}$

For critical damping L = $4R^{0}C$

For under damping L < $4R^{0}C$
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
Consider the following with reference to a CE transistor amplifier:
1. The use of negative feedback
2. The conversion of d.c power a.c
3. High voltage and corrent gains
4. The use of a step-up transformer
The power gain is due to
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 3
- 1 and 4
Correct

Feature:
1. The current gain is high
2. Voltage gain is high.
3. Input and output current are out of phase by 180°
4. The input and output voltage are out of phase by 180°
5. Input impedance is medium.
6. Output impedance is medium.
7. Since voltage gain and current gain both are simultaneously high, this configuration is always used as an amplifier.

Incorrect

Feature:
1. The current gain is high
2. Voltage gain is high.
3. Input and output current are out of phase by 180°
4. The input and output voltage are out of phase by 180°
5. Input impedance is medium.
6. Output impedance is medium.
7. Since voltage gain and current gain both are simultaneously high, this configuration is always used as an amplifier.
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
An n-bit A/D converter is required to convert an analog input in the range 0 - 5V accuracy of 10mV. The value of n should be
- 16
- 10
- 9
- 8
Correct

(3) Resolution = $\frac{10\times 10^{-3}}{5}$

$\frac{10^{-2}}{5}=\frac{1}{500}=\frac{1}{2^{n}}$

$\therefore$ n=9

Incorrect

(3) Resolution = $\frac{10\times 10^{-3}}{5}$

$\frac{10^{-2}}{5}=\frac{1}{500}=\frac{1}{2^{n}}$

$\therefore$ n=9
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
S_iand S₀ denote the signal a input and output of linear network. N_i and N₀ are the correct sponding noises. Which one of the following is the correct expression for noise figure of network?
- $\frac{S_{0}N_{i}}{S_{i}N_{0}}$
- $\frac{S_{i}N_{i}}{S_{0}N_{0}}$
- $\frac{S_{t}N_{0}}{S_{0}N_{t}}$
- $\frac{S_{0}N_{0}}{S_{i}N_{i}}$
Correct

$F\frac{S_{t}/N_{t}}{S_{0}/N_{0}}=\frac{S_{T}\times N_{0}}{N_{t}\times S_{0}}$

Incorrect

$F\frac{S_{t}/N_{t}}{S_{0}/N_{0}}=\frac{S_{T}\times N_{0}}{N_{t}\times S_{0}}$
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
Earth station figure of merit is defined as
- $10\log \left(\frac{G}{T}\right)$
- $100\log \left(\frac{G}{T}\right)$
- $1000\log \left(\frac{G}{T}\right)$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
From the two voltage equations eA = Em sin 100πt and eB = Em sin (100πt + π/6), it is obvious that
- A leads B by 30°
- B achieves its maximum value 1 /600 second before A does.
- B lags behind A
- A achieves its zero value 1 / 600 second before B.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
Which of the following are useful in comparing the noise performance of receivers
(i) input noise voltage
(ii) noise figure
(iii) noise resistance
(iv) noise temperature
Select answer as per the following codes
- (1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
- (2) (i), (iii) & (iv)
- (3) (i), (iii) & (iv)
- (i), (ii) & (iv)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
A 10 GHz signal was beamed up at a satellite at a distance of about 40,000 Km from earth’s surface. The signal undergoes a free space loss of
- 10 dB
- 50 dB
- 200 dB
- 385 dB
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
Which of the following statements is/are correct? In pumped storage power plants,
- Water is recirculated through water turbines
- Reversible turbines are used which operate as turbines for power generation during load hours and as pump for pumping water peak load hours.
- Plain Francis turbines are used
- Both (1) and (3) above are employed
Correct

(2) In a pumped storage power plants, reversible turbines are used which is used operate as turbines for power generation during load hours and as pump for pumping water peak load hours.
same turbines is used for pump and prime mover

Incorrect

(2) In a pumped storage power plants, reversible turbines are used which is used operate as turbines for power generation during load hours and as pump for pumping water peak load hours.
same turbines is used for pump and prime mover
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
Point out of the WRONG statement. In the node-voltage technique of solving networks, choice of a reference node does not
- affect the operation of the circuit
- change the voltage across any element
- alter the p.d. between any pair of nodes
- affect the voltages of various nodes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
The cable which goes to the subscriber’s house is known as
- Drop line
- Trunk line
- Branch line
- Head end
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
The voltage applied to the h.v. side of a transformer during short-circuit test is 2% of its rated voltage. The core loss will be ... percent of the rated core loss.
- 4
- 0.4
- 0.25
- 0.04
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
For making coil span equal to a pitch in the armature winding of a d.c. generator, the back pitch of the winding must equal the number of
- commutator bars per pole
- winding elements
- armature conductors per path
- armature parallel paths.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
The d.c. armature winding in which coil sides are a pole pitch apart is called winding.
- multiplex
- fractional-pitch
- full-pitch
- pole-pitch
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
What is the approximate input impedance of a CRO?
- Zero
- 1 MΩ
- 10Ω
- 10 µΩ
Correct

(2) CRO has high input impedance

Incorrect

(2) CRO has high input impedance
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
Aspect ratio for HDTV is
- 4:3
- 5:3
- 16 : 9
- 2 : 1
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
In a 3-phase induction motor, the relative speed of stator flux respect to is zero
- stator winding
- rotor
- rotor flux
- space
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
The phase angle between (R-Y) and (B-Y) signal is
- 0°
- 90°
- 180°
- 270°
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
The iron loss of a transformer at 400 Hz is 10 W. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary as the square of flux density, the iron loss of the transformer at rated voltage but at 50 Hz would be.... watt.
- 80
- 640
- 1.25
- 100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
A T-T connection has higher ratio of utilization that a V – V connection only when
- identical transformers are used
- load power factor is leading
- load power factor in unity
- non-identical transformers are used.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Type of antenna used at the receiving section of television
- Yagi-uda antenna
- Log periodic antenna
- Horn antenna
- Parabolic reflector antenna
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
AFC is used for
- Automatic frequency control of vertical and horizontal oscillator
- Horizontal synchronization
- Vertical synchronization
- Stabilising picture and sound IF
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
In a single phase full wave controlled bridge rectifier, minimum output voltage and maximum output voltage are obtained at which conduction angles?
- 0°, 180° respectively
- 180°, 0° respectively
- 0°, 0° respectively
- 180°, 180° respectively
Correct

(2) $v_{o}=\frac{2v_{m}}{\pi }\cdot \: \cos \: \alpha$

Incorrect

(2) $v_{o}=\frac{2v_{m}}{\pi }\cdot \: \cos \: \alpha$
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
For a half wave rectifier, what is the output dc voltage? (with peak voltage = $V_{m}$ ,dc current = $I_{DC}$ and forward resistance of diode = $R_{f}$ )
- $V_{DC}=\frac{V_{m}}{\pi}+I_{DC}R_{f}$
- $V_{DC}=\frac{I_{DC}}{\pi}-V_{m}R_{f}$
- $V_{DC}=\frac{V_{m}}{\pi}-I_{DC}R_{f}$
- None of these
Correct

3. output voltage will be available after dedutig drop in the

Diode itself i.e V_DC= $\frac{v_{m}}{\pi }= I_{DC}\: \: R_{_{\int }}$

Incorrect

3. output voltage will be available after dedutig drop in the

Diode itself i.e V_DC= $\frac{v_{m}}{\pi }= I_{DC}\: \: R_{_{\int }}$

Please comment on Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 6 - Time 2 Hours

7 Comments

Bhosale Dipali on December 3, 2023 at 4:33 pm

Yes
Reply
Sunny on September 15, 2019 at 6:00 pm

Name-sunny
V+p-morana - (distty muzaffarnagar) pincod (251616)- utter perdes
Reply
Phillip on November 21, 2018 at 8:18 am

Sir Madam I m SEbata Phillip ex mine worker unemployed school secondary grade 12 2018 regi abet subject maths ,june 2019 our first and second paper test ,result unkwon

fet citc sa IT DATA BASE AECRIVEMENT
INFO@CITCSA.
Reply
Phillip on November 21, 2018 at 7:29 am

registered 2019 abet subject physics
Reply
ramza on November 17, 2018 at 5:16 pm

ans well be 44882
which is not in the option
Reply
Amarjeet singh on May 25, 2018 at 6:19 pm

Great work sir thanks carry on
Reply
TEJVIR SINGH on February 4, 2018 at 11:32 am

ELECTRICAL JE
Reply

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Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 6 - Time 2 Hours

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