Junior Engineer Civil Practice Paper 5 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Civil - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters NKI using each letter only once in each word?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Meaningful English words are INK, KIN.

Incorrect

Meaningful English words are INK, KIN.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
The positions of first and the fourth letters of the word POUNDS are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the alphabet which is third from the right and the alphabet which is third from the left, in the English alphabetical order?
- None
- Two
- Three
- Four
- More than four
Correct

Given word = POUNDS
After interchanged, new word =NDSPOU
Hence, two letters (Q, R) are between the alphabet third from the right (P) and third from the left (S).

Incorrect

Given word = POUNDS
After interchanged, new word =NDSPOU
Hence, two letters (Q, R) are between the alphabet third from the right (P) and third from the left (S).
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Point A is 5 m towards the West of point B. Point C is 2 m towards the North of point B. Point D is 3 m towards the East of point C. Point E is 2 m towards the South of point D.

If a person walks 2 m towards the north from point A, takes a right turn and continues to walk, which of the following points would he reach the first?
- D
- B
- E
- C
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Point A is 5 m towards the West of point B. Point C is 2 m towards the North of point B. Point D is 3 m towards the East of point C. Point E is 2 m towards the South of point D.

Which of the following points are in a straight line?
- ABE
- DCA
- CED
- BDA
- ACE
Correct

Incorrect
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
The following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given below :

D L U A E N I O G K S V R M P B H F

If 'LU' is related to 'EO' and 'SV' is related to 'MH' in a certain way, to which of the following is NI related to , following the same Pattern?
- GS
- KV
- GV
- KR
- OS
Correct

Incorrect
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
The following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given below :

D L U A E N I O G K S V R M P B H F

What will come in place of question (?) mark in the following series based on the above alphabetical series?
- AP
- NP
- UH
- AB
- UB
Correct

Incorrect
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
The following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given below :

D L U A E N I O G K S V R M P B H F

If in a certain code'GLAD'is coded as'SANU'and'BUMP' is coded as 'FEBH'how will'SKID'be coded in the same code language?
- GOEU
- RVGU
- VSOU
- VSGU
- RVOL
Correct

Incorrect
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
Among five boxes numbered 1,,2,3,4 and 5 each has a different weight. Box no. 1 is heavier than box no' 5 but lighter than box no. 3. Box no. 4 is heavier than box no.3 but lighter than box no. 2. Which of the following represents the boxes which are the heaviest and the lightest respectively?
- Box no. 4 and box no. 5
- Box no. 4 and box no. 1
- Box no. 2 and box no. 1
- Box no. 2 and box no. 5
- Box no. 5 and box no. 4
Correct

Box no.2 > Box no.4 > Box no.3 > Box no. 1 > Box no.5

Hence, Box no. 2 is the heaviest and Box no. 5 is the lightest.

Incorrect

Box no.2 > Box no.4 > Box no.3 > Box no. 1 > Box no.5

Hence, Box no. 2 is the heaviest and Box no. 5 is the lightest.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
If each of the alphabets of the word SALIENT is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then, each vowel in the new word thus formed is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. Which of the following will be third from the left?
- M
- I
- J
- K
- R
Correct

Incorrect
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word QUICKLY, each of which has as many letters between them in the word {in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement F≥G=H; G> J≥K
Conclusions I.F≥K
II.K<H
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

statement F≥G=H; G > J≥K
Conclusions I. F≥K (False)
II.K<H(True)
Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.

Incorrect

statement F≥G=H; G > J≥K
Conclusions I. F≥K (False)
II.K<H(True)
Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement P < Q = R ≥ T; S ≥ T

Conclusions I .T ≤ Q

II. R > P
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement P < Q = R ≥ S ≥ T
Conclusions I. T ≤ Q (True) II. R > P (True)
Hence, both conclusions are definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement P < Q = R ≥ S ≥ T
Conclusions I. T ≤ Q (True) II. R > P (True)
Hence, both conclusions are definitely true.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D ; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C
II. F ≥ D
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C (True)II. F ≥ D (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement A ≤ B <C ; A ≥ D; C ≤ F
Conclusions I .D < C (True)II. F ≥ D (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E
II. o > U
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E (False)
II. o > U (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement U > A = I ≤ O ≤ E

Conclusions I. I ≤ E (False)
II. o > U (False)
Hence, only conclusion I is definitely true.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements.The statements are followed by conclusions.

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P
II. N<K
- if only Conclusion I is true
- if only Conclusion II is true
- if either Conclusion I or II is true
- if neither Conclusion I nor II is true
- if both Conclusions I and II are true
Correct

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P(False)
II. N<K(True)

Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.

Incorrect

Statement L= M ≥N; M > P; L < K

Conclusions I. K>P(False)
II. N<K(True)

Hence, only conclusion II is definitely true.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

What is the position of Q with respect to P ?
- Fifth to the right
- Immediate neighbour
- Second to right
- Third to left
- None of these
Correct

Second to right

Incorrect

Second to right
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

Which of the following represents persons seated at the two extreme ends of the line?
- P, V
- Y, S
- R, V
- Y, P
- R, Y
Correct

R, Y

Incorrect

R, Y
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

How many persons are seated between R and T ?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- None
Correct

Three (P, S, Q)

Incorrect

Three (P, S, Q)
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

If P is related to Q and S is related to T in a certain way, to which of the following would V be related to following the same pattern?
- Y
- P
- R
- S
- X
Correct

Y (Second Person seated second to the right of first Person)

Incorrect

Y (Second Person seated second to the right of first Person)
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions:

P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to right of R. R is not an immediate neighbour of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T nor Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line.

Who amongst the following sits exactly in the middle of the persons who sit second from the left and the person who sits fifth from the right?
- V
- Q
- T
- S
- P
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What is the code for'he'?
- la
- pa
- ro
- ta
- Either la or zo
Correct

he $\rightarrow$ pa

Incorrect

he $\rightarrow$ pa
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What does 'la' stand for?
- is
- train
- waiting
- the
- there
Correct

la $\rightarrow$ there

Incorrect

la $\rightarrow$ there
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

Which of the following represents 'the train station'?
- zo la ma
- fu ji ta
- fu ji zo
- ro zo fu
- Cannot be determined
Correct

the $\rightarrow$ ji, train $\rightarrow$ zo, station $\rightarrow$ fu
Hence, 'the train station' $\rightarrow$ ji zo fu or fu ji zo

Incorrect

the $\rightarrow$ ji, train $\rightarrow$ zo, station $\rightarrow$ fu
Hence, 'the train station' $\rightarrow$ ji zo fu or fu ji zo
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

What is the code for'at'?
- ma
- ji
- fu
- ta
- Cannot be determined
Correct

at $\rightarrow$ ma

Incorrect

at $\rightarrow$ ma
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, 'he is waiting there' is written as 'la pa ro ta', 'there is the train' is written as 'zo ro ji la', 'waiting at the station' is written as 'ma ta fu ji' and 'is this a station' is written as 'fu bi ro vi'.

Which of the following may represent 'guard is waiting'?
- ro ta zo
- ta ki ro
- fu zo ki
- ta ro ji
- la ma ro
Correct

is $\rightarrow$ ro. waiting $\rightarrow$ ta
Hence, 'guard is waiting' $\rightarrow$ ki or ta or ta vi ro

Incorrect

is $\rightarrow$ ro. waiting $\rightarrow$ ta
Hence, 'guard is waiting' $\rightarrow$ ki or ta or ta vi ro
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

Who sits exactly between F and A?
- B
- C
- E
- H
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

How many persons sit between A and H when counted in anti-clockwise direction from A?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- D
- F
- A
- E
- G
Correct

(All others sit middle of the each side)

Incorrect

(All others sit middle of the each side)
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

What is the position of F with respect to C?
- Third to the left
- Immediate to the right
- Second to the left
- Third to the right
- Immediate to the Ieft
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

What will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?
AE EH HF?
- FE
- HC
- FD
- DB
- FH
Correct

One more person sits in each successive pair of person.

Hence, three persons (C, A, E) are sitting between F and D.

Incorrect

One more person sits in each successive pair of person.

Hence, three persons (C, A, E) are sitting between F and D.
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded and also immediately followed by an even digit?
- None
- one
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

One (2 5 2)

Incorrect

One (2 5 2)
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
- 1
- 7
- 9
- 5
- 3
Correct

After deleting all the even digits, the new arrangement is

Incorrect

After deleting all the even digits, the new arrangement is
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

How many such 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square)
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Two (1 2, 9 2)

Incorrect

Two (1 2, 9 2)
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

What is the difference between the digit which is seventh from the left end and the digit which is eleventh from the right end of the arrangement?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 5
Correct

Required difference =2 - 3
≈1

Incorrect

Required difference =2 - 3
≈1
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

Which of the following is sixth to the left of the twentieth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
- 1
- 4
- 3
- 9
- 8
Correct

Required digit = ( $20^{th}-6^{th}$ ) from the left or

$14^{th}$ from the left = 9

Incorrect

Required digit = ( $20^{th}-6^{th}$ ) from the left or

$14^{th}$ from the left = 9
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

How many brothers does Shilpa have?
I. Deepa who is Shilpa's sister has two siblings.
II. Kaushal is the only son of Deepa's parents.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I, we clearly say that Shilpa has one brother and two sisters, herself and Deepa.

Incorrect

From Statement I, we clearly say that Shilpa has one brother and two sisters, herself and Deepa.
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Amongst four friends A, B, C and D seated in a straight line facing North, who sits to the immediate right of B?
I. A sits third to the right of B and C is not an immediate neighbour of B.
II. C sits to immediate left of A. A sits at one of the extreme ends. D does not sit at the extreme end of the line.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

From Statement II,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

Incorrect

From Statement I,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

From Statement II,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Which direction is Sudha facing?
I. If Sunny who is currentlly facing West, turns $90^{\circ}$ towards his left, he would face the same direction as Sudha.
II. If Harry who is currently facing East, turns $90^{\circ}$ towards his left, he would face a direction just opposite to the direction Sudha is facing.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

Hence, Sudha is facing South direction.

From Statement II

Incorrect

From Statement I,

Hence, Sudha is facing South direction.

From Statement II
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Amongst H, J, K and L sitting around a circular table facing the centre. who sits to the immediate left of H?
I. H sits second to left of L. K is an immediate neighbour of L.
II. J and H are immediate neighbours of each other. L is an immediate neighbour of J.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

From the above figure we cannot say who sits immediate left of H.

From Statement II,

From the above figure we cannot find the original position of J and H.
Hence, we cannot say who sits to the immediate left of H.

Incorrect

From Statement I,

From the above figure we cannot say who sits immediate left of H.

From Statement II,

From the above figure we cannot find the original position of J and H.
Hence, we cannot say who sits to the immediate left of H.
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

On which day of the week did Kiran take an off?
I. Amit correctly remembers that Kiran took an off before Thursday but after Monday.
II. Sneha correctly remembers that Kiran took an 'off after Tuesday but before Friday.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures design ' $\bar{v}$ ' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction, design 'O' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place anti-clockwise direction and design ' $\bigstar$ slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures design ' $\bar{v}$ ' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction, design 'O' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place anti-clockwise direction and design ' $\bigstar$ slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction.
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

The sequence ofthe problem figures is

Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

The sequence ofthe problem figures is

Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures one new design adds and after rotating 90' anti-clockwise direction design slips one place anti-clockwise direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures one new design adds and after rotating 90' anti-clockwise direction design slips one place anti-clockwise direction.
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $90^{\circ}$ ' anti-clockwise direction and changes its position with a certain rule. Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to {4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $90^{\circ}$ ' anti-clockwise direction and changes its position with a certain rule. Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to {4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure.
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (3) and (3) to (5) letter E comes two place left and other letters have been written in same order. Similar rule follows from problem figure (2) to (4) and (4) to answer figure.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (3) and (3) to (5) letter E comes two place left and other letters have been written in same order. Similar rule follows from problem figure (2) to (4) and (4) to answer figure.
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

The sequence of the problem figures is

RS = Reverse same design
S = Same design
Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

The sequence of the problem figures is

RS = Reverse same design
S = Same design
Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2), inner and outer small line on hexagon, slips two places clockwise direction and one outer line adds on hexagon with one place ahead of inner small line of hexagon' Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to (4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2), inner and outer small line on hexagon, slips two places clockwise direction and one outer line adds on hexagon with one place ahead of inner small line of hexagon' Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to (4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figure one shaded triangle and one unshaded triangle will be added and change their directions with a certain rule.

Incorrect

In each problem figure one shaded triangle and one unshaded triangle will be added and change their directions with a certain rule.
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures three designs get inverted out two times. Lower design has same direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures three designs get inverted out two times. Lower design has same direction.
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $45^{\circ}$ anti-clockwise direction and small inner line on pentagon slips one place anti-clock direction and goes
to outer side on pentagon and one small outer line adds on pentagon with one place ahead of previous small outer line.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $45^{\circ}$ anti-clockwise direction and small inner line on pentagon slips one place anti-clock direction and goes
to outer side on pentagon and one small outer line adds on pentagon with one place ahead of previous small outer line.
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Who among the following was sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Bihar recently?
- Ramai Ram
- Jitan Ram Manjhi
- Basistha Narayan Singh
- Narendra Singh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
11. Who among the following succeeded Narendra Modi as the new Chief Minister of Gujarat state?
- Nitinbhai Patel
- Parsottambhai Rupala
- Amit Shah
- Anandiben Patel
- Ramanlal Vora
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The RBI governor announced that the central bank is planning to issue bank licences with restrictions and encourage payment banks. As he mentioned, what will be the function(s) of such banks? Payment banks
- will not take deposits.
- will offer payment and remittance services.
- will be constrained to invest all its funds in safe instruments such as govt securities.
- All the above
- only (1) and (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The World Free Zones Organization (WFZO), aimed at providing a platform for boosting cooperation among free zones globally, was launched with its headquarters in ________recently.
- Dubai
- New Delhi
- Shanghai
- Ottawa
- Manila
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
The US announced to never use a vaccine campaign again in counter terrorism operations, recently. It had used such campaign in which of the following major operations?
- Operation Neptune Spear
- Operation Odyssey Dawn
- Operation Geronimo
- Operation Desert Storm
- Operation Eagle Claw
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
A new study by the International Labour Organisation (ILO) estimates that forced labour worldwide generates illegal profits of at least USD 150 bn a year. The ILO is headquartered at
- Geneva
- Wellington
- Perth
- Hague
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
A US court convicted cleric Abu Hamza for supporting terrorism, recently. He was extradited to the US from ________in 2012 after an eight year legal battle.
- Jordon
- UAE
- UK
- Saudi Arabia
- France
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
Name the chief minister who is all set to surpass the record of former West Bengal chief minister Jyoti Basu of being the longest serving chief minister of the country?
- Naveen Patnaik
- Pawan Chamling
- Shivraj Singh Chauhan
- Nabam Tuki
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The PJ Nayak Committee, which has submitted its report to the RBI, has mention about the dual regulation of public
sector banks (PSBs) as they are regulated by the RBI as well as the________.
- Ministry of Finance
- Ministry of Commerce and Industry
- Ministry of Law
- Ministry of Home Affairs
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
An expert group of the Planning Commission has estimated that India needs to invest ________for lower emissions by
2030.
- USD 400 bn
- USD 634 bn
- USD 750 bn
- USD 834 bn
- USD 900 bn
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Morgan Stanley predicted that India will emerge from stagflation over next few quarters. Which of the following
are the features of the stagflation in a country’s economy?
- Persistent high inflation
- High unemployment
- Stagnant demand
- All the above
- only (1) and (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
India lost to which of the following countries and settled for a historic bronze in Uber Cup women’s badminton tournament recently?
- Denmark
- Japan
- Indonesia
- China
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
In 1969, in the fourth Lok Sabha, who among the following became the first person to be formally recognised and given the status of leader of the opposition?
- Ram Subhag Singh
- GV Mavalankar
- Jagjivan Ram
- CM Stephen
- YB Chavan
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been temporarily appointed as the US ambassador to India after Nancy Powell resigned
from the post recently?
- Tara Sonenshine
- Stephen W Bosworth
- Christopher R Hill
- Kathleen Stephens
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
Who among the following took over as the new Chief Information Commissioner in the Central Information Commission
recently?
- Syed Asif Ibrahim
- Rajiv Mathur
- N Sandhu
- PC Haldar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
TR Zeliang has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of which of the following states?
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Sikkim
- Nagaland
- Manipur
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
ONGC Videsh Ltd (OVL) has signed a deal with Rosneft to jointly explore hydrocarbons in the offshore Arctic. Rosneft is the largest oil and gas producer of
- US 2) Russia
- China
- Uzbekistan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
Which of the following teams won the Women’s Asian Cup Football championship recently?
- Japan
- Australia
- Vietnam
- China
- China
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Narendra Modi sworn-in on 26 May as the ________Prime Minister of India.
- thirteenth
- fourteenth
- fifteenth
- sixteenth
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
Which of the following teams has lifted Thomas Cup men’s badminton championship recently?
- Indonesia
- China
- Malaysia
- Japan
- India
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the recent Presidential election in Ukraine?
- Arseniy Yatsenyuk
- Sergei Tigipko
- Petro Poroshenko
- Yulia Tymoshenko
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been sworn in as new External Affairs Minister, the first woman to get External Affairs
portfolio?
- Najma A Heptulla
- Sushma Swaraj
- Smriti Zubin Irani
- Maneka Gandhi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been appointed as the new principal secretary to the Prime Minister of India?
- Nripendra Mishra
- RK Mathur
- Anil Goswami
- Arun Ramanathan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
The movie ‘Frozen’ has become the fifth highest-grossing film in box office history across the world. Which of the following movies is the highest grosser?
- Avatar
- Titanic
- The Avengers
- Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
Which of the following currencies has been the best performing currency in Asia-Pacific region against the US dollar so far in 2014?
- Indian Rupee
- Malaysian Ringgit
- South Korean Won
- Japanese Yen
- New Zealand dollar
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
Which of the following currencies has been the best performing currency in Asia-Pacific region against the US dollar so far in 2014?
- Indian Rupee
- Malaysian Ringgit
- South Korean Won
- Japanese Yen
- New Zealand dollar
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
Which of the following cities has been awarded the rights to host the inaugural European Games to be held in 2015?
- Minsk, Belarus
- Zagreb, Croatia
- Sofia, Bulgaria
- Baku, Azerbaijan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the 2014 Monaco Formula One Grand Prix?
- Nico Rosberg
- Jenson Button
- Fernando Alonso
- Sebastian Vettel
- Lewis Hamilton
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
Which of the following movies has won the prestigious Palme d’Or award, the festival’s highest honor, at the 67th annual Cannes Film Festival?
- Foxcatcher
- Mr Turner
- Maps to the Stars
- The Wonders
- Winter Sleep
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
As informed by the Afghanistan President Hamid Karzai during has recent India visit, which of the following terrorist groups was responsible for attack on the Indian consulate in Afghanistan’s Herat province?
- Lashkar-e-Omar
- Jaish-e-Mohammed
- Lashkar-e-Taiba
- Al-Qaeda
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Name the coup leader who overthrown the govt in Thailand recently?
- Jatuporn Prompan
- 2) Prem Tinsulanonda
- Anupong Paochinda
- Prayuth Chan-ocha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
William Pinckney, who was arrested by the Andhra Pradesh Police, recently, is the Chairman and CEO which of the following companies?
- Nestle India
- Amway India
- Nokia India
- Hindustan Unilever
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
As announced by the US President Barack Obama, the US military will be completely pulled out of Afghanistan by the end of
- 2015
- 2016
- 2017
- 2018
- 2020
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
Which of the following teams won the Sub-Junior Girls National Championship title recently?
- Hockey Haryana
- Chandigarh Olympic Association
- Madhya Pradesh Hockey Academy (MPHA)
- Jharkhand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been sworn in as the Minister of Human Resource Development? He/She is the youngest minister of the new Union Cabinet as of now?
- Radha Mohan Singh
- Harsimrat Kaur Badal
- Ananth Kumar
- Smriti Zubin Irani
- Sushma Swaraj
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
In the first decision after assuming office, the Narendra Modi govt constituted a special investigative team (SIT) to unearth black money. Which of the following is NOT correct about the new SIT?
- It will be headed by former Supreme Court judge Mukul Mudgal.
- It will include Revenue Secretary, CBI and IB directors, Enforcement Directorate official, CBDT Chairman and RBI deputy governor.
- 3) Former Supreme Court judge Arijit Pasayat will be the vice-chairman of the panel.
- It has been charged with the responsibility and duties of investigation, initiation of proceedings and prosecution in cases involving unaccounted money.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
The leaders of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) group took part in the swearing in ceremony of the new PM Narendra Modi, recently. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the group?
- China
- Afghanistan
- Bhutan
- Nepal
- Mauritius
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
During his recent visit to India, the head of which of the following countries said to have decided to provide automatic exchange of tax related information with India?
- Maldives
- Mauritius
- Fiji
- Switzerland
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
The SEBI wants the govt to pare its holdings in PSUs to ensure what per cent public share holding which the regulator has successfully implemented for private companies?
- 10 per cent
- 15 per cent
- 20 per cent
- 25 per cent
- 40 per cent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
49. Who among the following has been appointed Chairman of the Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, recently?
- Justice NP Singh
- Justice P Sathasivam
- Justice MB Shah
- Justice BS Chauhan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
Who has authored the book ‘Redesigning the Aeroplane While Flying: Reforming Institutions’?
- Pallavi Aiyar
- Mihir Shah
- Arun Maira
- Sam Pitroda
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
The international hockey suffered a big setback as the Sultan of Perak, Sultan Azlan Shah passed away recently. He was a father figure for hockey in which of the following countries?
- Indonesia
- Malaysia
- Yemen
- Pakistan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Indian Cricket team for upcoming Bangladesh tour for ODI series was announced recently. Who among the following will lead the team?
- Mahendra Singh Dhoni
- Suresh Raina
- Gautam Gambhir
- Virat Kohli
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
Punjab govt has given in-principle approval for setting up a Rs 150-cr mega food park at which of the following cities to promote food processing industry in the state, recently?
- Ludhiana
- Patiala
- Amritsar
- Mohali
- Jalandhar
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has cleared purchase of a 50 per cent stake in Tata Group firm Trent Hypermarket by which of the following global retail firms? It is the first FDI transaction in multi-brand retail since the sector was opened up in 2012.
- Carrefour
- Walmart
- Kroger
- Tesco
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
Name the Andhra Pradesh Governor who has been given the additional charge of Telangana, the youngest state of the country which will come into existence on 2 Jun.
- MC Bhandare
- Hansraj Bhardwaj
- ESL Narasimhan
- Konijeti Rosaiah
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
56. In a specialty hospital for patients suffering from dementia and palsy in which of the following countries, at least 20 patients and a nurse were killed in a fire, recently?
- Singapore
- Japan
- Thailand
- South Korea
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been named to be the next Attorney General (AG) of India?
- Mukul Rohatgi
- Maninder Singh
- Mohan Parasaran
- Ranjit Kumar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been named the Protem Speaker of the Lok Sabha to conduct oath-taking ceremony of the newly elected MPs?
- Venkiah Naidu
- Murli Manohar Joshi
- Kamal Nath
- Lal Krishna Advani
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
Nripendra Misra has been appointed Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister through an ordinance as his previous appointment as the chairman of which of the following regulators prohibited him to take the post?
- SEBI
- CCI
- TRAI
- IRDA
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
A trapezoidal channel has a bottom width of 6.0 m and side slopes of 1:1. The depth of flow is 1.5 m at a discharge of 15 m3 per second and the critical depth is 0.9m. What type of flow is it?
- Turbulent
- Tranquil
- Stagnant
- Muddy
Correct

Incorrect
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
Taste and odour in water are associated with the presence of the
- Decaying organic matter
- Living algae
- Metallic products of corrosion
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
The gradient required to generate self-cleaning velocity in case of 150 mm diameter sewer is
- 1 in 10
- 1 in 50
- 1 in 100
- 1 in 200
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
For the given heat flow and for the same thickness, the temperature drop across the material will be maximum for
- copper
- steel
- glass-wool
- refractory brick
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
When permissible non-scouring velocity is 5m/sec, the type of sewer generally used is
- Stoneware sewer
- R.C.C. sewer
- Steel sewer
- Glazed brick sewer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
The highest non-scouring velocity in sewer may be maintained in case of
- Steel sewer
- Cast iron sewer
- Glazed brick sewer
- Cement concrete sewer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
Non-scouring velocity in case of cement concrete sewers is usually
- 2.5 to 3.0 m/sec
- 4.5 to 5.0 m/sec
- 6.5 to 7.0 m/sec
- 7.5 to 8.0 m/sec
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
The thickness of ice in lake is 6 cm and the temperature of air is -10°C. How long will it take for the thickness of ice to be doubled? Thermal conductivity of ice, K = 0.005 c.g.s. unit, density of ice, p = 0.92 g/cc & latent heat of ice, L = 80 cal./g.
- 22 hr 4 min 48 sec
- 22 hr 8 min 50 sec
- 22 hr 10 min 6 sec
- 22 hr 4 min 40 sec
Correct

Time taken for thickness $x_{1}$ to $x_{2}$ is given by t = $\frac{\rho L}{2K\theta}(X_{2}^{2}-X_{1}^{2})$

$\theta$ is the temperature of air $\Rightarrow t=\frac{0.92\times 80}{2\times 0.005\times 10}(12^{2}-6^{2})$

= $\frac{0.92\times 80}{2\times 0.005}\times 18\times 6$

$\Rightarrow$ = 22 hours 4 minutes 48 seconds

Incorrect

Time taken for thickness $x_{1}$ to $x_{2}$ is given by t = $\frac{\rho L}{2K\theta}(X_{2}^{2}-X_{1}^{2})$

$\theta$ is the temperature of air $\Rightarrow t=\frac{0.92\times 80}{2\times 0.005\times 10}(12^{2}-6^{2})$

= $\frac{0.92\times 80}{2\times 0.005}\times 18\times 6$

$\Rightarrow$ = 22 hours 4 minutes 48 seconds
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
A daylight bulb made of tungsten filament of surface area 0.5 cm2 is heated to a temperature of 2240°K, when operated at 220 volts. What is the voltage of the bulb? Emissivity of the filament = 0.35; σ = 5.6 x 10-5 c.g.s. units, 1 watt = 107 ergs per sec.
- 30 watt
- 40 watt
- 26 watt
- 25 watt
Correct

Here Power = $eA\sigma T^{4}$ erg/sec

Where e = emissivity

A = Surface Area

$\sigma$ = Temperature of the filament

$\Rightarrow P=\frac{0.35\times 0.5\times 5.67\times 10^{5}\times(2240)^{4}}{10^{7}}$ = 24.98watt = 25watt

Incorrect

Here Power = $eA\sigma T^{4}$ erg/sec

Where e = emissivity

A = Surface Area

$\sigma$ = Temperature of the filament

$\Rightarrow P=\frac{0.35\times 0.5\times 5.67\times 10^{5}\times(2240)^{4}}{10^{7}}$ = 24.98watt = 25watt
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
In the above question number (100), if the filament temperature falls to 2000°K due to a drop of mains voltage, then what will be the wattage of the bulb?
- 15.0 watt
- 16.88 watt
- 15.88 watt
- 14.88 watt
Correct

Let $P_{1}$ and $P_{2}$ be the wattage of the bulbs at temperature $T_{1}$ and $T_{1}$ respectively , then

$\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}=\left(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\right)^{4}$

$\Rightarrow P_{2}=\left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right)^{4}\times P_{1}$

$\Rightarrow P_{2}=\left(\frac{2000}{2240}\right)^{4}\times 2.5$ = 15.88 Watt

Incorrect

Let $P_{1}$ and $P_{2}$ be the wattage of the bulbs at temperature $T_{1}$ and $T_{1}$ respectively , then

$\frac{P_{1}}{P_{2}}=\left(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\right)^{4}$

$\Rightarrow P_{2}=\left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right)^{4}\times P_{1}$

$\Rightarrow P_{2}=\left(\frac{2000}{2240}\right)^{4}\times 2.5$ = 15.88 Watt
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
A blackened platinum wire of length 5 cm and perimeter 0.02 cm is maintained at a temperature of 3000°K. At what rate is the wire losing its energy ? (Given σ = $5.67\times 10^{-5}$ c.g.s. units)
- 45.927 watt
- 45.910 watt
- 45.827 watt
- 45.727 watt
Correct

Here energy loss by wire is given by P

$\frac{eA\sigma\: ^{4}T}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$

$\frac{1\times 5\times 0.02\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}\times 3000^{4}}{10^{7}}$

$\Rightarrow$ P = 45.927 watt.

Incorrect

Here energy loss by wire is given by P

$\frac{eA\sigma\: ^{4}T}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$

$\frac{1\times 5\times 0.02\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}\times 3000^{4}}{10^{7}}$

$\Rightarrow$ P = 45.927 watt.
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
A blackened sphere of radius 10 cm at a temperature of 227°C is placed in a chamber with blackened wall, maintained at 27°C. What is its rate of loss of heat?
σ = $5.67\times 10^{-5}$ c.g.s. units.
- 92.68 cal/sec
- 92.78 cal/sec
- 92.90 cal/sec.
- 92.48 cal/sec.
Correct

$\frac{eA\sigma (T_{1}^{4}-T_{2}^{4})}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$ cal/sec

$\frac{1\times 4\pi \times 10^{2}\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}\times (500^{4}-300^{4})}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$

$\therefore$ E = 92.68 cal/sec

Incorrect

$\frac{eA\sigma (T_{1}^{4}-T_{2}^{4})}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$ cal/sec

$\frac{1\times 4\pi \times 10^{2}\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}\times (500^{4}-300^{4})}{4.18\times 10^{7}}$

$\therefore$ E = 92.68 cal/sec
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
What is the pressure exerted by $2\times 10^{6}js$ X-rays photons of frequency $7\times 10^{19}js$ Hz falling every second on 1m2 area of a blackened element (h = $6.62\times 10^{-34}js$ )?
- $30\times 10^{-7}$
- $30-79\times 10^{-7}$
- $30-89\times 10^{-7}$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
Aberrations are
- Closing error
- (2) Error in level reading Error in level reading
- Optical defect due to lens
- Instrumental error in level-ling
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
The magnetic bearing of a line is S 28° 20’ E. If the declination is 7°30’ west, the time bearing will be
- S 20° 50’ E
- S 35°50’ E
- E 20° 50’ S
- E 35° 55’ S
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
The best method of interpolation of contours in indirect method of contouring is by
- Computation
- Interpolation
- Imagination
- Estimation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
Sandstone exhibits
- Cellular texture
- Pisolitic texture
- Granular texture
- Foliated texture
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
Lateriteis
- Argillaceous rock
- Silicious rock
- Calcareous rock
- Magma
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
- Longest line on wind rose diagram
- Shortest line on wind rose diagram
- Perpendicular to the wind rose diagram
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Permeability of soil varies
- Inversely as square of grain size
- Directly as grain size
- Inversely as grain size
- Directly as square of grain
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
$M^{-2}LT^{-2}$ could be the dimensions of
- Pressure
- Acceleration
- Discharge
- Specific weight
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
A calorimeter containing a hot liquid is placed inside an enclosure whose walls are at 10°C and cools from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes. How long will it take for the liquid to cool from 60°C to 40°C if Newton’s law of cooling holds?
- 15.18 minutes
- 16.18 minutes
- 18.18 minutes
- 13.18 minutes
Correct

$\log \frac{\theta _{1}-\theta _{0}}{\theta _{2}-\theta _{0}}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times t$

$\theta _{0}=10^{\circ}C$

$\Rightarrow \log \frac{60-10}{80-10}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times 10$

$\Rightarrow \log \frac{40-10}{60-10}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times t$

$\Rightarrow t\log \frac{5}{7}=10\log \frac{3}{5}$

$\Rightarrow$ t = 15.18 minutes

Incorrect

$\log \frac{\theta _{1}-\theta _{0}}{\theta _{2}-\theta _{0}}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times t$

$\theta _{0}=10^{\circ}C$

$\Rightarrow \log \frac{60-10}{80-10}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times 10$

$\Rightarrow \log \frac{40-10}{60-10}=\frac{-K}{ms}\times t$

$\Rightarrow t\log \frac{5}{7}=10\log \frac{3}{5}$

$\Rightarrow$ t = 15.18 minutes
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
Two identical spheres P and Q at temperatures 18°C and 35°C respectively are suspended in a room, where the temperature is 25°C. After some time, the temperature of P is found to be 23°C. What is the temperature of the sphere Q at that instant?
- Nearly 29°C
- Nearly 28°C
- 30°C
- 27°C
Correct

$\log \frac{\theta _{1}-\theta _{0}}{\theta _{2}-\theta _{0}}=\log \frac{\theta _{0}-\theta _{1}}{\theta _{0}-\theta _{2}}$

Let $\theta$ be the temperature of the sphere Q , then we have ,

$\frac{\theta -25}{35-25}=\frac{25-23}{25-18}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{\theta -25}{10}=\frac{2}{7}$

70 - 175 = 20

$\Rightarrow 70=195$

$\Rightarrow \theta =28^{\circ}C$

Incorrect

$\log \frac{\theta _{1}-\theta _{0}}{\theta _{2}-\theta _{0}}=\log \frac{\theta _{0}-\theta _{1}}{\theta _{0}-\theta _{2}}$

Let $\theta$ be the temperature of the sphere Q , then we have ,

$\frac{\theta -25}{35-25}=\frac{25-23}{25-18}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{\theta -25}{10}=\frac{2}{7}$

70 - 175 = 20

$\Rightarrow 70=195$

$\Rightarrow \theta =28^{\circ}C$
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
What is the amount of energy released when a helium nucleus 2He4 is formed by the fusion of two protons and two neutrons?
Mass of neutron = 1.00898 amu
Mass of proton = 1.00759 amu
Mass of helium nucleus = 4.00277 amu
- 28.27 MeV
- 28.10 MeV
- 29.27 MeV
- 27.27 MeV
Correct

Expected mass of $\alpha$ - particle = $2\times 1.00898+2\times 1.00759$ = 4.03314

Mass defect = $\Delta$ m

= 4.03314 - 4.00277 = 0.03037

$\therefore$ Energy released = $0.03037\times 931$ = 28.27 Mev

Incorrect

Expected mass of $\alpha$ - particle = $2\times 1.00898+2\times 1.00759$ = 4.03314

Mass defect = $\Delta$ m

= 4.03314 - 4.00277 = 0.03037

$\therefore$ Energy released = $0.03037\times 931$ = 28.27 Mev
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
Longitudinal sound waves produced at the surface of a sea return after being reflected at the bottom in 2.5 seconds. What is the depth of that sea? Coefficient of compression of water = 4.6 x 10-10 m2/N
- 1809 m
- 1820 m
- 1816 m
- 1815 m
Correct

Let the depth of sea be h , then $\frac{h}{1.25}=V$ , Where V is the velocity of sound

$\therefore$ h = 1.25 V

$\sqrt{\frac{1}{4.6\times 10^{-10}\times 1030}}$

$\Rightarrow$ = 1816

Incorrect

Let the depth of sea be h , then $\frac{h}{1.25}=V$ , Where V is the velocity of sound

$\therefore$ h = 1.25 V

$\sqrt{\frac{1}{4.6\times 10^{-10}\times 1030}}$

$\Rightarrow$ = 1816
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
Horizontal distances obtained by tacheometric observations require
- Slope correction
- Tension correction
- Slope and tension corrections
- No corrections for slope and tension
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
As per Lacey’s regime theory, the flow velocity is proportional to
- $(Qf^{2})^{\frac{1}{6}}$
- $\frac{Q}{f^{2}}$
- $\left(\frac{Q}{f^{2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}}$
- $(Qf)^{\frac{1}{6}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
A water shed canal
- Is most suitable in hilly areas
- Avoids the cross drainage works
- Irrigates only one side
- Is generally aligned parallel to the contours of the area
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
The ratio of average values: shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of channel due to flowing water is
- Zero
- Greater than 1
- 1
- Less than 1
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
- Dead storage
- Useful storage
- Valley storage
- Surcharge storage
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is
- 6.5m
- 8.5 m
- 7.5 m
- 5.5 m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
A gate cap is fitted with a
- Level
- Chain
- Cross staff
- Prismatic compass
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is
- 2
- 1
- 3
- 4
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
In a beam where shear force is maximum, the bending moment will be
- Zero
- Maximum
- Minimum
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
Hoop stress is
- Compressive stress
- Longitudinal stress
- Radial stress
- Circumferential tensile stress
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
A short hollow cast iron cylinder with a wall thickness of 1 cm is to carry a compressive load of 10 tonnes. If the working stress in compression is 800 kg/cm2, the outside diameter of the cylinder should not be less than
- 4.5 cm
- 5 cm
- 2.5 cm
- 1.0 cm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
Highest factor of safety is usually taken for
- Live load
- Dead load
- Shock load
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
A beam of uniform length will have at every cross-section
- Same bending moment
- Same bending stress
- Same stiffness
- Same deflection
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
A portion of a beam between two sections is said to be pure bending where there is
- Constant shear force and zero bending moment
- Constant bending moment and constant shear force
- Constant bending moment and zero shear force
- Zero bending moment and zero shear force
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
The distribution mains are designed for
- Maximum per hour demand
- Maximum daily demand
- Average daily demand
- Maximum per hour demand on maximum days
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources, are called
- Filters
- Intakes
- Aquiclude
- Aquifers
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
- 1 : 2
- 1 : 1
- 1.5 : 1
- 2 : 1
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
If the strength of a simply supported rectangular beam is doubled for the same load, the deflection at the center will be
- $\frac{1}{8}$
- $\frac{1}{6}$
- $\frac{1}{4}$
- $\frac{1}{2}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
The end conditions for a long column which gives the maximum buckling load, are
- Both ends hinged
- Both ends fixed
- One end fixed and the other end free
- One end fixed and the other end hinged
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
If a shaft of diameter D is subjected to a torque T, the maxi-mum shear stress is
- $\frac{4T}{\pi D}$
- $\frac{8T}{\pi D^{2}}$
- $\frac{16T}{\pi D^{3}}$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
The ratio of the maximum shear stress developed in a solid shaft of diameter ‘D’ and a hollow shaft of external diameter ‘D’ and internal diameter ‘d’, when both shafts are subjected to the same torque, is
- $\frac{D^{4}-d^{4}}{D^{4}}$
- $\frac{D^{2}-d^{2}}{D^{2}}$
- $\frac{D^{3}-d^{3}}{D^{3}}$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
For a shaft subjected to combined bending moment M and twisting moment T, the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the maximum bending stress is
- $\frac{T}{2m}$
- $\frac{2T}{m}$
- $\frac{T}{m}$
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
For a bar subjected to uniaxial stress F, the strain energy stored per unit volume of the bar is (where e is the strain and E s the Young’s Modulus)
- $\frac{F^{2}}{2E}$
- $\frac{1}{2}F\in$
- $\frac{E\in ^{2}}{2}$
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
In a pure shear stress system, the shear strain energy per unit volume where x is the maximum shear stress, is
- $\frac{\zeta ^{2}}{4G}$
- $\frac{2\zeta ^{2}}{G}$
- $\frac{\zeta ^{2}}{G}$
- $\frac{\zeta ^{2}}{2G}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
What is the maximum span upto which plate girders can be used economically?
- 18 m
- 12 m
- 40 m
- 42 m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Pumps commonly used for sewage disposal are
- Turbine pumps
- Centrifugal pumps
- Reciprocating pumps
- Plunger pumps
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
A useful chemical added to check the growth of algae in reservoirs is
- Copper sulphate
- Milk of magnesia
- Bleaching powder
- Alum
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
Very fine and light colloidal impurities in water such as gels, emulsions and clay particles can be removed by
- Settlement
- Aeration
- Filtration
- Coagulation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
Ultraviolet rays are useful for disinfection of water for
- Fishing ponds
- Swimming ponds
- Domestic purpose
- Paper and pulp industry
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination θ. The whole system is accelerated horizontally so that the block does not slip on the wedge. The force exerted by the wedge on the block (g is acceleration due to gravity) will be:
- mg
- $mg\: \cos \theta$
- $\frac{mg}{\cos \theta}$
- $mg\: \sin \theta$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Which of the following industries consumes maximum water per tonne of product?
- Petroleum refining
- Sugar manufacture
- Paper and pulp
- Steel manufacture
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
The hardness of 50 ppm of calcium carbonate in water represents
- Hard water
- Soft water
- Slightly hard water
- Moderately hard water
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
A body acted upon by a force of 50N is displaced through a distance of 10 meters in a direction making an angle of 60° with the applied force. What is the work done by the force?
- 300 J
- 275 J
- 250 J
- 100 J
Correct

The work done by the force F in displacement S is given by

W = F.S $\cos \theta$

$\therefore W=5\times 10\times \cos 60^{\circ}$

= 50\times 10\times \frac{1}{2}=250J

Incorrect

The work done by the force F in displacement S is given by

W = F.S $\cos \theta$

$\therefore W=5\times 10\times \cos 60^{\circ}$

= 50\times 10\times \frac{1}{2}=250J
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
The rectangular components of a force are 3N and 4N. What is the magnitude of the force?
- 5 N
- 6 N
- 7 N
- 8 N
Correct

R = $\sqrt{A_{X}^{2}+A_{Y}}=\sqrt{9+16}=\sqrt{25}5N$

Incorrect

R = $\sqrt{A_{X}^{2}+A_{Y}}=\sqrt{9+16}=\sqrt{25}5N$
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
A force is represented by 2î + 3 ĵ+ 6ЌN. What is the magnitude of force?
- 6 units
- 7 units
- 8 units
- 4 units
Correct

$R=\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}+6^{2}}=\sqrt{49}$ = 7unit

Incorrect

$R=\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}+6^{2}}=\sqrt{49}$ = 7unit
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
What is the angle between x-axis and force represented by F = 2î + 3ĵ+ 4Ќ ?
- $\cos ^{-1}\frac{2}{\sqrt{40}}$
- $\cos ^{-1}\frac{1}{\sqrt{29}}$
- $\cos ^{-1}\frac{2}{\sqrt{29}}$
- $\cos ^{-1}\frac{3}{\sqrt{40}}$
Correct

$|\vec{F}|=\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}+4^{2}}=\sqrt{29}$

and $\cos \alpha=\frac{F_{X}}{|\vec{F}|}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{29}}$

Incorrect

$|\vec{F}|=\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}+4^{2}}=\sqrt{29}$

and $\cos \alpha=\frac{F_{X}}{|\vec{F}|}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{29}}$
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
If the magnitudes of two vectors are 3 and 4, and the magnitude of their scalar product is 6, then what is the angle between the two vectors?
- 70°
- 65°
- 60°
- 69°
Correct

Let $\theta$ be the angle between the two vector $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{B}$ .

Their scalar product is $\vec{A}\cdot \vec{B}=AB\cos \theta$

$\therefore$ 6 = (3)(4) $\cos \theta$

$\Rightarrow \cos \theta =\frac{6}{12}=\frac{1}{2}$

$\Rightarrow \theta =60^{\circ}$

Incorrect

Let $\theta$ be the angle between the two vector $\vec{A}$ and $\vec{B}$ .

Their scalar product is $\vec{A}\cdot \vec{B}=AB\cos \theta$

$\therefore$ 6 = (3)(4) $\cos \theta$

$\Rightarrow \cos \theta =\frac{6}{12}=\frac{1}{2}$

$\Rightarrow \theta =60^{\circ}$
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
A constant force of 2î+ 3ĵ + 7ЌN produces a displacement of 2î + 3ĵ+ 5Ќ meters. What is the work done?
- 48 J
- 47 J
- 49 J
- 45 J
Correct

W = F . S

$\therefore W=(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+7\hat{k})\cdot (2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+5\hat{k})$

= $2\times 2+3\times 3+7\times 5$ = 4 + 9 + 35 = 48J

Incorrect

W = F . S

$\therefore W=(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+7\hat{k})\cdot (2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+5\hat{k})$

= $2\times 2+3\times 3+7\times 5$ = 4 + 9 + 35 = 48J
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
What is the area of a parallelogram whose adjacent sides are given by (î + 2ĵ+3Ќ) and (î-3ĵ+ Ќ)?
- $\sqrt{197}$
- $\sqrt{195}$
- $\sqrt{192}$
- $\sqrt{187}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
A trapezoidal channel has side slope 1.5 horizontal to 1 vertical. It is to discharge 20m3/sec. of water with a grade of 0.5 m per km. What will be the depth of channel for its best form? (n = 0.01)
- 2.0 m
- 2.045 m
- 2.5 m
- 2.030 m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
A force of 120 N and another force of 20N acting simultaneously at a point may produce a resultant force of
- 100 N
- 140 N
- (3) 160 N
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
The defect in painting due to sliding of one layer of paint over another is known as
- Alligatoring
- Sliding
- Wrinkling
- Peeling
Correct

Incorrect
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
Which of the following oils can be used in a vehicle for paints?
- Poppy oil
- Nut oil
- Tung oil
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
The setting of hydraulic lime and cement is facilitated by
- Presence of oxygen
- Presence of water
- Presence of air
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
Red lead is available in the form of
- Granules
- Sticks
- Ingots
- Powder
Correct

Incorrect
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
Assuming Planck’s constant to be 6.63 x 10-34J, the energy of a photon of wavelength 2000Å would be nearly
- $10^{-18}$ J
- $10^{-21}$ J
- $13\times 10^{-8}$ J
- $13\times 10^{-8}$ J
Correct

Incorrect
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
Secondary consolidation is caused by
- Hydrodynamic lag
- Triaxial stress
- Creep
- Steep gradients
Correct

Incorrect
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
The potential energy stored up in a deformed body is known as
- Resilience
- Strain energy
- Potential energy
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
The reinforcement bars are generally bent
- By heating
- By casting in shape
- By welding
- Manually by a lever
Correct

Incorrect
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
The minimum diameter of the longitudinal bar in a R.C.C. column should not be less than
- 12 mm
- 6 mm
- 50 mm
- 25 mm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
The effective length of a column continuing through two or more storeys, properly restrained at both ends in position and direction, is taken as
- 1.5 L
- L
- 2 L
- 0.75 L
Correct

Incorrect
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
When a number of columns are to be constructed in a row, the type of foundation generally preferred is
- Grillage foundation
- Pile foundation
- Raft foundation
- Strip footing foundation
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
The design of a beam as deep beam, takes into account
- Lateral buckling
- Temperature stress
- Non-linear distribution o: stress
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
Transverse reinforcement is provided in slabs for
- Even distribution of shrinkage and temperature cracks
- For keeping the reinforcement in position
- More uniform distribution of the effect of point loads on the slab
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
A mass of 1kg is attached to the middle of a rope, which is being pulled from both the opposite directions. Taking g= 10m/sec2 what is the minimum pull required to completely straighten the rope?
- 5 N
- 10 N
- 200 N
- Infinite
Correct

A , B and C are three vectors acting at a point and their resultant is zero , then

$\frac{A}{\sin \alpha}=\frac{B}{\sin \beta}=\frac{C}{\sin \gamma}$ ,Where $\alpha ,\beta$ and $\gamma$ are shown below

To straighten the rope $\gamma$ should be $180^{\circ}$

Then $\alpha =\beta =90^{\circ}$

$\therefore A=B=\frac{C}{\sin 180}$

$\Rightarrow A=B=\frac{1\times 10}{0}=\infty$

Incorrect

A , B and C are three vectors acting at a point and their resultant is zero , then

$\frac{A}{\sin \alpha}=\frac{B}{\sin \beta}=\frac{C}{\sin \gamma}$ ,Where $\alpha ,\beta$ and $\gamma$ are shown below

To straighten the rope $\gamma$ should be $180^{\circ}$

Then $\alpha =\beta =90^{\circ}$

$\therefore A=B=\frac{C}{\sin 180}$

$\Rightarrow A=B=\frac{1\times 10}{0}=\infty$
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The length of regular sedimentation tank should not be more than (where W is the width of tank)
- W
- 2 W
- 8 W
- 4 W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
Double filtration is used
- To increase the filtration capacity of rapid sand filters
- To increase the filtration capacity of slow sand filters
- For isolated buildings like swimming pools, hotels etc
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
The dissolved oxygen (D.O.) level in natural unpolluted water at normal temperature is found of the order of
- 10mg/litre
- 1 mg/litre
- 100 mg/litre
- 100mg/litre
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the
- Turbidity in water
- Dissolved oxygen in water
- Residual chlorine in water
- Hardness of water
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
As compared to the Brinell hardness test, the Rockwell method
- Is much slower
- May be used on thicker materials
- Makes a thinner indentation
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
Brass could not be used to reinforce concrete because
- its density is too low
- its density is too large
- it is too expensive
- its coefficient of thermal expansion is not suitable
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
- 15-20 years
- 40-50 years
- 30-40 years
- 5-10 years
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
For a hollow shaft whose external diameter is d and internal diameter $\frac{d}{2}$ , the polar modulus will be
- $\frac{\pi}{16}d^{3}$
- $\frac{15\pi}{16}d^{3}$
- $\frac{12\pi}{256}d^{3}$
- $\frac{115\pi}{128}d^{3}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
A salinometer measures
- Solar radiation
- Density of brine
- Sound level
- Intensity of illumination
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
Cast in-situ piles are
- Cast in position inside the ground
- Invariably reinforced
- Subjected to handling or driving stresses
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
Pile foundations are provided
- On water logged soils
- On compact soil
- On soft rocks
- For multi-storeyed buildings
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
Cement grouting is useful for foundations on
- Clay
- Moist sand
- Gravel
- Rock
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
The bricks having one or two edges rounded for use in slightly covered corners are called
- Round nose
- Bull nose
- Specific nose
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
The course of stone masonry provided at the top of a wall and usually ornamental in shape is called
- Cornice
- Head
- Sill
- Lintel
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
The width of the opening which is covered by an arch is known as
- Span
- Width
- Diameter
- Base
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
If a particle moves with a constant speed, the distance-time graph is
- A straight line
- A circle
- A polygon
- A zig-zag line
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
In circular motion
- The direction of motion is fixed
- The direction of motion changes continuously
- The acceleration is zero
- The velocity is constant
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is
- Always < 1
- Always = 1
- Always > 1
- Equal to or less than 1 (≤1)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
The time period of a simple pendulum in a lift descending with constant acceleration g is
- $T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}$
- $T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{l}{2g}}$
- Infinite
- Zero
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
The small areas on a painted surface enclosed by hair-line cracks are called
- (1) Blistering
- Crocodiling
- Chalking
- Crazing
Correct

Incorrect