Mock Test 6

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a square table facing the centre in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the flour sides.

(a) A sits second to right of F. F sits in the middle of one of the sides of the table
(b) G who does not sit at any of the corners of the table sits second to the right of D
(c) Only two people sit between D and B (taken from one side)
(d) C is not an immediate neighbour of G
(e) H is sits second to left of B
(f) E is not an immediate neighbour of G or F

What will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?
AE EH HF?
- FE
- HC
- FD
- DB
- FH
Correct

One more person sits in each successive pair of person.

Hence, three persons (C, A, E) are sitting between F and D.

Incorrect

One more person sits in each successive pair of person.

Hence, three persons (C, A, E) are sitting between F and D.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

How many such 5s are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded and also immediately followed by an even digit?
- None
- one
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

One (2 5 2)

Incorrect

One (2 5 2)
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

If all the even digits are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the right end of the arrangement?
- 1
- 7
- 9
- 5
- 3
Correct

After deleting all the even digits, the new arrangement is

Incorrect

After deleting all the even digits, the new arrangement is
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

How many such 2s are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a perfect square? (1 is also a perfect square)
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Two (1 2, 9 2)

Incorrect

Two (1 2, 9 2)
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

What is the difference between the digit which is seventh from the left end and the digit which is eleventh from the right end of the arrangement?
- 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 5
Correct

Required difference =2 - 3
≈1

Incorrect

Required difference =2 - 3
≈1
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :

7 1 2 8 2 5 2 7 5 6 4 9 1 9 2 4 1 4 6 4 5 3 2 6 3 7 8 5 1 3 1 5 8 2 7

Which of the following is sixth to the left of the twentieth digit from the left end of the above arrangement?
- 1
- 4
- 3
- 9
- 8
Correct

Required digit = ( $20^{th}-6^{th}$ ) from the left or

$14^{th}$ from the left = 9

Incorrect

Required digit = ( $20^{th}-6^{th}$ ) from the left or

$14^{th}$ from the left = 9
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

How many brothers does Shilpa have?
I. Deepa who is Shilpa's sister has two siblings.
II. Kaushal is the only son of Deepa's parents.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I, we clearly say that Shilpa has one brother and two sisters, herself and Deepa.

Incorrect

From Statement I, we clearly say that Shilpa has one brother and two sisters, herself and Deepa.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Amongst four friends A, B, C and D seated in a straight line facing North, who sits to the immediate right of B?
I. A sits third to the right of B and C is not an immediate neighbour of B.
II. C sits to immediate left of A. A sits at one of the extreme ends. D does not sit at the extreme end of the line.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

From Statement II,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

Incorrect

From Statement I,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.

From Statement II,

Hence, D sits immediate right of B.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Which direction is Sudha facing?
I. If Sunny who is currentlly facing West, turns $90^{\circ}$ towards his left, he would face the same direction as Sudha.
II. If Harry who is currently facing East, turns $90^{\circ}$ towards his left, he would face a direction just opposite to the direction Sudha is facing.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

Hence, Sudha is facing South direction.

From Statement II

Incorrect

From Statement I,

Hence, Sudha is facing South direction.

From Statement II
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Amongst H, J, K and L sitting around a circular table facing the centre. who sits to the immediate left of H?
I. H sits second to left of L. K is an immediate neighbour of L.
II. J and H are immediate neighbours of each other. L is an immediate neighbour of J.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From Statement I,

From the above figure we cannot say who sits immediate left of H.

From Statement II,

From the above figure we cannot find the original position of J and H.
Hence, we cannot say who sits to the immediate left of H.

Incorrect

From Statement I,

From the above figure we cannot say who sits immediate left of H.

From Statement II,

From the above figure we cannot find the original position of J and H.
Hence, we cannot say who sits to the immediate left of H.
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

On which day of the week did Kiran take an off?
I. Amit correctly remembers that Kiran took an off before Thursday but after Monday.
II. Sneha correctly remembers that Kiran took an 'off after Tuesday but before Friday.
- if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures design ' $\bar{v}$ ' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction, design 'O' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place anti-clockwise direction and design ' $\bigstar$ slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures design ' $\bar{v}$ ' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction, design 'O' slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place anti-clockwise direction and design ' $\bigstar$ slips $\frac{1}{2}$ place clockwise direction.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

The sequence ofthe problem figures is

Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

The sequence ofthe problem figures is

Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures one new design adds and after rotating 90' anti-clockwise direction design slips one place anti-clockwise direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures one new design adds and after rotating 90' anti-clockwise direction design slips one place anti-clockwise direction.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $90^{\circ}$ ' anti-clockwise direction and changes its position with a certain rule. Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to {4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $90^{\circ}$ ' anti-clockwise direction and changes its position with a certain rule. Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to {4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (3) and (3) to (5) letter E comes two place left and other letters have been written in same order. Similar rule follows from problem figure (2) to (4) and (4) to answer figure.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (3) and (3) to (5) letter E comes two place left and other letters have been written in same order. Similar rule follows from problem figure (2) to (4) and (4) to answer figure.
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

The sequence of the problem figures is

RS = Reverse same design
S = Same design
Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

The sequence of the problem figures is

RS = Reverse same design
S = Same design
Problem figure (1) to (2)
Problem figure (3) to (a)
Problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2), inner and outer small line on hexagon, slips two places clockwise direction and one outer line adds on hexagon with one place ahead of inner small line of hexagon' Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to (4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2), inner and outer small line on hexagon, slips two places clockwise direction and one outer line adds on hexagon with one place ahead of inner small line of hexagon' Similar rule follows from problem figure (3) to (4) and problem figure (5) to answer figure
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figure one shaded triangle and one unshaded triangle will be added and change their directions with a certain rule.

Incorrect

In each problem figure one shaded triangle and one unshaded triangle will be added and change their directions with a certain rule.
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

In each problem figures three designs get inverted out two times. Lower design has same direction.

Incorrect

In each problem figures three designs get inverted out two times. Lower design has same direction.
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
In each of the Questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $45^{\circ}$ anti-clockwise direction and small inner line on pentagon slips one place anti-clock direction and goes
to outer side on pentagon and one small outer line adds on pentagon with one place ahead of previous small outer line.

Incorrect

From problem figure (1) to (2) whole figure rotates $45^{\circ}$ anti-clockwise direction and small inner line on pentagon slips one place anti-clock direction and goes
to outer side on pentagon and one small outer line adds on pentagon with one place ahead of previous small outer line.
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All the windows are doors. No door is a wall.

Conclusions:
1. Some windows are walls.
2. No wall is a door.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) Follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All cups are books. All books are shirts.

Conclusions:
1. Some cups are not shirts.
2. Some shirts are cups.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) Follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some cows are crows. Some crows are elephants.

Conclusions:
1. Some cows are elephants.
2. All crows are elephants.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) and (2) Follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All the pencils are pens. All the pens are inks.

Conclusions:
1. All the pencils are inks.
2. Some inks are pencils.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) Follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. You may also find only a group of words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase which is nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

We were taken aback at the fulsome praise heaped upon his former enemy,
- elaborated
- extravagant
- excessive
- exorbitant
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. You may also find only a group of words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase which is nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

You may think at first that it is queer to talk of having too much paper money and that money is so nice and useful that you cannot have too much of it.
- ridiculous
- absurd
- anomalous
- odd
- None of these .
Correct

Incorrect
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. You may also find only a group of words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase which is nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

The Government is under no obligation to offer contracts to companies which choose to flout guidelines.
- condemn
- ignore
- defy
- neglect
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. You may also find only a group of words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase which is nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

Soon he felt uncomfortable, for the coach was now moving over a rugged road.
- rough
- narrow
- dusty
- sturdy
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
In this section, you find a number of sentences, parts of which are underlined. You may also find only a group of words which is underlined. For each underlined part, four words/phrases are listed below. Choose the word/phrase which is nearest in meaning to the underlined part.

Indians exhibited a remarkable solidarity at the time of war.
- coalition
- cooperation
- unification
- unity
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
Read. the list of word given below and choose from the options (1) to (5) the word that is SIMILAR in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

SOMNAMBULISTIC
- Sleep walking
- Ghost dancing
- Women's group activity
- Colourful scenario
- Over-eating
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Read. the list of word given below and choose from the options (1) to (5) the word that is SIMILAR in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

PRIMORDIAL
- Feeling ofelation
- Original
- Elementary
- Daunting
- None sf these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Read. the list of word given below and choose from the options (1) to (5) the word that is SIMILAR in meaning to the word given in capital letters.

SOMBRE
- Causing sleep
- Squalid
- Gloomy
- Complacent
- Malicious
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
To pick holes
- To find some reason to quarrel
- To destroy something
- To criticise someone
- To cut some part of an item
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
To leave someone in the lurch
- To come to compromise with someone
- Constant source of annoyance to someone
- To put someone at ease
- To desert someone in his difficulties
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
To play second fiddle
- To be happy, cheerful and healthy
- To reduce importance of one's senior
- To support the role and view of another person
- To do back seat driving
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
To be the question
- To refer to
- To take for granted
- To raise objections
- o be discussed
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
A black sheep
- An unlucky person
- A lucky person
- An ugly person
- A partner who takes no share of the profits
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
A man of straw
- A man of no substance
- A very active person
- A worthy fellow
- An unreasonable person
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: Some dogs are bats. Some bats are cats.

Conclusions:
1. Some dogs are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
Two statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements: All the trucks are flies. Some scooters are flies.

Conclusions:
1. All the trucks are scooters.
2. Some scooters are trucks.
- Only (1) conclusion follows
- Only (2) conclusion follows
- Either (1) or (2) Follows
- Neither (1) nor (2) Follows
- Both (1) or (2) Follows
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
Each question presents a situation and asks you to make a judgment regarding that particular circumstance. Answer each one solely on the basis of the information given.
Mrs. Jansen recently moved to Arizona. She wants to fill her new backyard with flowering plants. Although she is an experienced gardener, she isn't very well-versed in what plants will do well in the Arizona climate. Also, there is a big tree in her backyard making for shady conditions and she isn't sure what plants will thrive without much direct sunlight. Her favorite gardening catalog offers several backyard seed packages. Which one should Mrs. Jansen choose?
- The Rainbow Collection is ideal for North-east gardens. It includes a variety of colorful perennials that thrive in cool, moist conditions.
- The Greenhouse Collection will blossom year after year if planted in brightly lit locations and watered regularly.
- The Tree house Collection will provide lush green plants with delicate colorful flowers that thrive in shady and partially shady locations.
- The Oasis Collection includes a variety of perennials that thrive in dry climates and bright sunlight.
- The Oasis Collection includes a variety of perennials that thrive in dry climates and bright sunlight.
Correct

The Tree house Collection is the only package that can thrive in shady locations. Choice a requires a Northeastern climate. Choices b and d require bright sunlight.

Incorrect

The Tree house Collection is the only package that can thrive in shady locations. Choice a requires a Northeastern climate. Choices b and d require bright sunlight.
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
Zachary has invited his three buddies over to watch the basketball game on his wide-screen television. They are all hungry, but no one wants to leave to get food. Just as they are arguing about who should make the food run, a commercial comes on for a local pizze-ria that delivers. The phone number flashes on the screen briefly and they all try to remember it. By the time Zachary grabs a pen and paper, each of them recollects a different number.

#1: All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995.

#2: Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9.

#3: Three agree that the fifth number is 2.

#4: Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also 6.

Which of the numbers is most likely the telephone number of the pizzeria?
- 995-9336
- 995-9266
- 995-8266
- 995-9268
- None of these
Correct

All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995. Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9. Three agree that the fifth number is 2. Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also 6. "Option A" is the best choice because it is made up of the numbers that most of the men agree they saw.

Incorrect

All of the men agree that the first three numbers are 995. Three of them agree that the fourth number is 9. Three agree that the fifth number is 2. Three agree that the sixth number is 6; three others agree that the seventh number is also 6. "Option A" is the best choice because it is made up of the numbers that most of the men agree they saw.
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
Mrs. Carson took a taxi to meet her three friends for lunch. They were waiting for her outside the restaurant when she pulled up in the car. She was so excited to see her friends that she left her tote bag in the taxi. As the taxi pulled away, she and her friends took notice of the license plate number so they would be able to identify the car when they called the taxi company.

#1: The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J.

#2: Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L.

#3: Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third letter is K.

The four license plate numbers below represent what each of the four women thinks she saw. Which one is most likely the license plate number of the taxi?
- JXK 12L
- JXK 12I
- JYK 12L
- JXX 12L
- None of these
Correct

The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J. Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L. Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third letter is K. The plate description that has all of these common elements is "Option A".

Incorrect

The four women seem to agree that the plate starts out with the letter J. Three of them agree that the plate ends with 12L. Three of them think that the second letter is X, and a different three think that the third letter is K. The plate description that has all of these common elements is "Option A".
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
If DELHI is coded as CCIDD ,how would you encode BOMBAY?
- AJMTVT
- AMJXVS
- MJXVSU
- WXYZAX
- None of these
Correct

the first, second, third,_____ Letters of the word are respectively moved one, two,

three,_____steps to backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.

Incorrect

the first, second, third,_____ Letters of the word are respectively moved one, two,

three,_____steps to backward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
In a certain code, TRIPPLE is written as SQHOOKD. How is DISPOSE written in that code?
- CHRONRD
- DSOESPI
- ESJTPTF
- ESJTPTF
- None of these
Correct

Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.

Incorrect

Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code.
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
In a code ,CORNER is written as GSVRI .how can CENTRAL be written in that code?
- DFOUSBM
- GIRXVEP
- GJRYVEP
- GNFJKER
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
If in a certain language,TRIANGLE is coded as SQHZMFKD,which word would be coded as DWZLOKD
- EXAMPLE
- FIGMENT
- DISMISS
- DISMISS
- None of these
Correct

each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.

Incorrect

each letter of the word is one step ahead of the corresponding letter of the code.
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?
- 5279431
- 5978213
- 8251896
- 8543691
- 5) None of these
Correct

The alphabets are coded as follows :

D E L H I C A U T

7 3 5 4 1 8 2 9 6

So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5,I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus,

the code for CALICUT is 8251896.

Incorrect

The alphabets are coded as follows :

D E L H I C A U T

7 3 5 4 1 8 2 9 6

So, in CALICUT, C is coded as 8, A as 2, L as 5,I as 1, U as 9 and T as 6. Thus,

the code for CALICUT is 8251896.
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
During the recent Japan Visit of PM Narendra Modi,India has signed a MoU to develop Varanasi on the model of which of the following Japanese cities?
- Tokyo
- Nagoya
- Kyoto
- Yokohama
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
India gross Domestic product (GDP) grew at what per cent during Apr-Jun quarter, the highest in the last 10 quarters?
- 5.3 per cent
- 5.7 per cent
- 6.1 per cent
- 6.5 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has agreed to work with India in developing a treatment for the Sickle Cell Anaemia recently? The deadly disease is common among tribals in India.
- US
- Singapore
- Japan
- Germany
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
Vidyasagar Rao has been Sworn in as Governor of which of the following states recently?
- Rajasthan
- Chhattisgarh
- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
A five-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court ruled regarding death convicts recently. Which of the following is NOT correct in this regard?
- The review plea of a death convicts will be heard in an open court by at least a three-judge bench.
- All condemned prisoners, whose review pleas have already been decided, have been allowed to approach it within a month for re-opening of their cases.
- A death convict whose curative petition has been decided cannot approach for re-opening of his review plea.
- Earlier, in most cases, review petitions were decided in judges’ chambers and the parties were not allowed to be present.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
The Narendra Modi govt completed it 100 days recently. Which of the following is NOT a measure initiative taken by the govt in this period?
- Panel to locate the ‘black money’ supposed to have been stashed away in tax havens abroad.
- The previous govt’s Groups of Ministers (GOMs) and Empowered Groups of Ministers (EGOMs) scrapped.
- The Planning Commission that existed for 50 years scrapped.
- Collegium system for making appointments to the higher judiciary introduced.
- Ambitious financial inclusion scheme, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, launched.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been appointed as the first chairwoman of BBC Trust, the body overseeing the world famous news corporation?
- Rona Fairhead
- Denise Coates
- Dido Harding
- Dame Helen Alexander
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
India will get what amount from Japan over the next five years for different infrastructure projects across the country as finalised during the recent visit of PM Narendra Modi to Japan?
- USD 25 bn
- USD 30 bn
- USD 35 bn
- USD 40 bn
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The Govt of India and the World Bank signed a $107-mn credit agreement for the road linkage of which of the following states with Bangladesh, as well as Myanmar?
- Mizoram
- Manipur
- Tripura
- Nagaland
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
Retail investors can now have bigger share in the PSU stake sale as the govt has decided to double the quota under the Offer For Sale (OFS) route for them. What will be the new quota for retail investors under OFS route?
- 10 per cent
- 20 per cent
- 30 per cent
- 40 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
As revealed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the banking system detected the highest number of counterfeit notes of which of the following denominations in FY14?
- Rs 50
- Rs 100
- Rs 500
- Rs 1,000
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
The system that operates outside the regular banking system and financial intermediation activities are undertaken with less transparency and regulation than the conventional banking, is called
- Shadow banking
- Universal banking
- Unitary banking
- Social banking
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
The retail investor quota in FPO in the disinvestments of PSUs is 30 per cent. What does FPO stands for?
- Follow on Public Offer
- Follow on Priority Offer
- Follow on Private Offer
- Follow on PSU Offer
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Academic activity begin at Nalanda University Rjgir in Bihar recently. More than eight centuries ago (1193), the ancient university was destroyed by ________ invaders.
- Turkish
- Mongolian
- Portugal
- Spanish
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
The world's largest duty free shop (DFS) opened in which of the following countries recently? Spread in 72,000 square meters, it will house more than 300 international brands.
- Japan
- China
- Singapore
- Malaysia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
Normal Gordon, the oldest surviving Test cricketer passed away at 103 recently. He was a fast bowler of which of the following countries?
- England
- Australia
- South Africa
- New Zealand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the women’s World Badminton Championships title recently in Copenhagen?
- Li Xuerei
- Carolina Marin
- Wang Shixian
- Saina Nehwal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
The Parliament of which of the following countries has renamed the outgoing premier Abdullah al-Thinni as the country’s new Prime Minister?
- Afghanistan
- Yemen
- Lebanon
- Libya
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Soon to be released book, titled ‘Playing It My Way’, is the autobiography of which of the following cricketing legends?
- Sunil Gavaskar
- Rahul Dravid
- Kapil Dev
- Sachin Tendulkar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
Goolam E Vahanvati, who passed away, recently, was the former
- Attorney General of India
- Solicitor General of India
- Advocate General of Maharashtra
- All the above
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
The Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan attended the 9th Annual Meeting of Women Speakers of Parliament in which of the following cities recently?
- Geneva, Switzerland
- London, UK
- New York, US
- Tokyo, Japan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
The govt has decided to establish the National Cancer Institute at which of the following places?
- Patiala, Punjab
- Jhajjar, Haryana
- Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
- Hisar, Haryana
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
What is India’s position in the Global Competitiveness Report 2014-15, recently released by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum?
- 71st
- 72nd
- 74th
- 81st
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
Justice Dharmadhikari Committee submitted its report to Maharashtra govt recently. The Committee has recommended which of the following?
- Complete ban on dance bars
- Keeping record of youths heading to Iraq and Syria
- Complete ban on Dahi Handi festival
- New drainage system for the city
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
The govt wishes to pass new Motor Vehicles Bill in winter session of the Parliament. Which of the following is NOT a highlight of the proposed Bill?
- Repeated violations of traffic rules will result in cancellation of driving license.
- Centralizing data to check misuse of driving licenses.
- Installing CCTV cameras at all traffic signals.
- Driving licence must for all even those driving battery operated low speed vehicles.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
The govt has requested the Supreme Court not to cancel the permits for how many coal blocks that were functioning or were about to start production? The Supreme Court has ruled that the Centre’s allocation of coal blocks between 1993 and 2010 was illegal.
- 32
- 46
- 56
- 61
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
Airlines and its owner Vijay Mallya as wilful defaulters. According to the RBI, a wilful default is deemed to have occurred in which of the following four circumstances?
- When there is a default in repayment obligations by the unit to the lender even when it has the capacity to honour the said obligations.
- The funds are not utilized for the specific purpose for which finance was availed but have been diverted for other purposes.
- When the asset bought by the lenders funds has been sold off without the knowledge of the bank/lender.
- All the above
- Only 1 and 2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
Thev former chief justice of India P Sathasivam has been appointed the new governor of which of the following states?
- Karnataka
- Gujarat
- Maharashtra
- Kerala
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
A two-day summit of NATO heads of states was organised in the Ireland capital Wales recently. What is the expanded form of NATO?
- North America Treaty Organization
- North Atlantic Treaty Organization
- North Alliance Treaty Organization
- North Africa Treaty Organization
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
The name of Ritu Rani is associated with which of the following games? She is all set to play an important role in Asian Games in Incheon, South Korea?
- Badminton
- Tennis
- Basketball
- Hockey
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
India won the recent ODI series against England which makes Mahendra Singh Dhoni the most successful Indian ODI captain till date. Name the India batsman whose maiden ODI century was instrumental in this win?
- Shikhar Dhawan
- Ajinkya Rahane
- Bhuvneshwar Kumar
- Cheteshwar Pujara
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
Who among the following is all set to become the next Chief Justice of India after the present CJI RM Lodha retires?
- VN Khare
- GB Patnaik
- HL Dattu
- AM Ahmadi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
Who among the following replaced Anand Sinha, who retired in Jan, as RBI deputy governor recently?
- G Padmanabhan
- B Mahapatra
- P Vijaya Bhaskar
- DK Mohanty
- R Gandhi
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
The United Nations and which of the following international sports bodies signed a historic agreement, recently, with the objectives of using the power of sports to promote peace and economic development across the world?
- FIFA
- IOC
- FIDE
- ICC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
Telecom tribunal TDSAT upheld the plea to provide 3G intra-circle roaming services and also quashed the cumulative penalty of Rs 1,200 cr imposed on which of the following three telecom companies recently?
- Idea, Reliance and Airtel
- Idea, Vodafone and Aircel
- Idea, Vodafone and Airtel
- Reliance, Vodafone and Airtel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to have one more deputy governor. Which of the following is correct with respect to the appointment of deputy governors to the RBI?
- To be eligible for deputy governor post in the RBI, a candidate needs to be below 60 years.
- A deputy governor could be appointed for a maximum period of five years or till the age of 62, whichever is earlier.
- At present, the RBI has provision for five deputy governors.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
A new purple mineral with a unique makeup was discovered in a remote part of Australia recently. Name the mineral.
- Putnisite
- Siderite
- Limonite
- Pyrite
- Malachite
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won CIMB Indonesian Masters golf tournament recently?
- Gaganjeet Bhullar
- Jeev Milkha Singh
- Arjun Atwal
- Jyoti Randhawa
- Anirban Lahiri
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has set up a Special Police Force to handle religious disputes in the country in response to the rising incidents of religious intolerance?
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
- Thailand
- Bangladesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court stayed the execution of death sentence of LeT terrorist Mohd Arif (Ashfaq) who plead that he has already spent over 13 years behind bars and hanging him would amount to punishing him twice for the crime. He was convicted in ________case.
- Red Fort attack
- Jama Masjid attack
- Sarojini Nagar bomb blast
- Attack on the Parliament
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
The 28-member European Union temporarily banned the import of which of the following items from Indian recently?
- snake gourd
- bitter gourd
- Alphonso mangoes
- All the above
- Only 2) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
Finish telecommunication equipment maker Nokia appointed who among the following as its President and CEO recently?
- Ajay Banga
- Rajeev Suri
- Stephen Elop
- Risto Siilasmaa
- Rakesh Kapoor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Who among the following replaced Anand Sinha, who retired in Jan, as RBI deputy governor recently?
- G Padmanabhan
- B Mahapatra
- P Vijaya Bhaskar
- DK Mohanty
- R Gandhi
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
The United Nations and which of the following international sports bodies signed a historic agreement, recently, with the objectives of using the power of sports to promote peace and economic development across the world?
- FIFA
- IOC
- FIDE
- ICC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
Telecom tribunal TDSAT upheld the plea to provide 3G intra-circle roaming services and also quashed the cumulative penalty of Rs 1,200 cr imposed on which of the following three telecom companies recently?
- Idea, Reliance and Airtel
- Idea, Vodafone and Aircel
- Idea, Vodafone and Airtel
- Reliance, Vodafone and Airtel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to have one more deputy governor. Which of the following is correct with respect to the appointment of deputy governors to the RBI?
- To be eligible for deputy governor post in the RBI, a candidate needs to be below 60 years.
- A deputy governor could be appointed for a maximum period of five years or till the age of 62, whichever is earlier.
- At present, the RBI has provision for five deputy governors.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court stayed the execution of death sentence of LeT terrorist Mohd Arif (Ashfaq) who plead that he has already spent over 13 years behind bars and hanging him would amount to punishing him twice for the crime. He was convicted in ________case.
- Red Fort attack
- Jama Masjid attack
- Sarojini Nagar bomb blast
- Attack on the Parliament
- None of these
Correct

B's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 188) = Rs. 112.

A's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 152) = Rs. 148.

C's daily earning = Rs. [300 - (112 + 148)] = Rs. 40.

Incorrect

B's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 188) = Rs. 112.

A's daily earning = Rs. (300 - 152) = Rs. 148.

C's daily earning = Rs. [300 - (112 + 148)] = Rs. 40.
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
A new purple mineral with a unique makeup was discovered in a remote part of Australia recently. Name the mineral.
- Putnisite
- Siderite
- Limonite
- Pyrite
- Malachite
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won CIMB Indonesian Masters golf tournament recently?
- Gaganjeet Bhullar
- Jeev Milkha Singh
- Arjun Atwal
- Jyoti Randhawa
- Anirban Lahiri
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has set up a Special Police Force to handle religious disputes in the country in response to the rising incidents of religious intolerance?
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
- Thailand
- Bangladesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
- 9793
- 9985
- 9893
- 9879
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

7 ( 625 + 450 + 324)

= 9793
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
If is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer so obtained is 10906. So that the number number is?
- 65025
- 265
- 70225
- 255
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
$\frac{\sqrt{32}+\sqrt{48}}{\sqrt{8}+ \sqrt{12}}$ [Bank PO 1990]
- $\sqrt{2}$
- 2
- 4
- 8
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
Find the length of canvas 1.25 m wide required to build a conical camp of base radius 7 meters and height 24 meters.
- 330 m
- 440 m
- 445 m
- 550 m
Correct

Here, r = 7 m and h = 24 m.

So, l = $\sqrt{r^{2}+h^{2}}$ = $\sqrt{7^{2}+24^{2}}$ =25 m

Area of canvas = πrl ⇒ $(\frac{22}{7}\times 7\times 5)m^{2}$ = $550m^{2}$

Length of canvas = $(\frac{area}{width})$ = $(\frac{550}{1.25})$ =440 m

Incorrect

Here, r = 7 m and h = 24 m.

So, l = $\sqrt{r^{2}+h^{2}}$ = $\sqrt{7^{2}+24^{2}}$ =25 m

Area of canvas = πrl ⇒ $(\frac{22}{7}\times 7\times 5)m^{2}$ = $550m^{2}$

Length of canvas = $(\frac{area}{width})$ = $(\frac{550}{1.25})$ =440 m
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
The radii of the bases of a cylinder and a cone are in the ratio 3 : 4 and their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3. Find the ratio of their volumes.
- 2:5
- 6:5
- 9:8
- 10:6
Correct

Let the radii of the and cone be 3r and 4r and their heights be 2h and 3h respectively.

∴ $(\frac{volume of cylinder}{Volume of cone})$ = $\frac{\Pi \times 3r^{2}\times 2h}{\frac{1}{3}\times 4r^{2}\times 3h}$ = $\frac{9}{8}$

= 9:8

Incorrect

Let the radii of the and cone be 3r and 4r and their heights be 2h and 3h respectively.

∴ $(\frac{volume of cylinder}{Volume of cone})$ = $\frac{\Pi \times 3r^{2}\times 2h}{\frac{1}{3}\times 4r^{2}\times 3h}$ = $\frac{9}{8}$

= 9:8
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
Water flows into a tank 200m × 150 m through a rectangular pipe 1.5m × 1.25 m @ 20 kmph. In what time (in minutes) will the water rise by 2 meters ?
- 42 min
- 96 min
- 100 min
- 120 min
Correct

Volume required in the tank (200 × 150 × 2)

Length of the water column flown in 1 min. = $\frac{20\times 100}{60}m$ = $\frac{100}{3}m$

Volume flown per minute = $\frac{1000}{3}\times 1.5\times 1.25$ =625

∴ Required time = $(\frac{6000}{625})min$

⇒ 96 min.

Incorrect

Volume required in the tank (200 × 150 × 2)

Length of the water column flown in 1 min. = $\frac{20\times 100}{60}m$ = $\frac{100}{3}m$

Volume flown per minute = $\frac{1000}{3}\times 1.5\times 1.25$ =625

∴ Required time = $(\frac{6000}{625})min$

⇒ 96 min.
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishlng a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the question s based on it.

Various expenditures (in percentage)
incurred in Publishing a hook

For an edition of 12500 copies, the amount of royalty paid by the publisher is Rs 284250. what should be the selling price of the book if the publisher desires a profit of 5%?
- Rs 152.50
- Rs 157.50
- Rs 162.50
- Rs 180
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Let the selling price of this edition (of 12b00 books) be y.

Then, 120:25= 180: x

$\Rightarrow \, \, y= Rs\left ( \frac{105\times 281250}{15} \right )= Rs \, \, 1968750$

Hence, selling price of one book

$\Rightarrow \, \, =\left ( \frac{1968750}{12500} \right )= Rs \, \, 157.50$
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishlng a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the question s based on it.

Various expenditures (in percentage)
incurred in Publishing a hook

If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs 82500, then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?
- Rs 187.50
- Rs 191.50
- Rs 175
- Rs 180
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Let the selling price of 5500 books be Rs Z. Then,

$\Rightarrow \, \,$ 10: (100+25) = 82500 : Z

$\Rightarrow \, \, Z=Rs\, \left ( \frac{125\times 82500}{10} \right )= Rs\, �1031250$

Hence, the selling price of one book

$= Rs\, \left ( \frac{1031250}{5500} \right )= Rs\, \, 187.50$
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishlng a book. Study the pie-chart and answer the question s based on it.

Various expenditures (in percentage)
incurred in Publishing a hook

Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by
- 5%
- 45%
- 20%
- 25%
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Difference between printing cost of book and royalty on books = (20 - 15')% of cost price = 5% of cost price

Hence , % difference $=\frac{Difference}{Printing\, \, �Cost}\times 100$ %

$=\left ( \frac{5}{20} \times 100\right )$ % = 25%
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
Foreign investments flows by different
categories in 1996-97

Total investment flows = US $ 5706 million
what was the value of the total investment flows through euro equities?
- 1000
- 960
- 915
- 900
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

VAlue of investment through Euro equities

= 16% of 5706

$=\frac{16}{100}\times 5706= 913 \, \, million$
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Seema purchased an item for Rs.9600 and sold it for loss of 5 per cent. From that money she purchased another item and sold it for gain of 5 per cent. What is her overall gain/loss?
- Loss of Rs.36
- Profit of Rs.24
- Loss of Rs.54
- Profit of Rs.36
- None of these
Correct

Cost price of the item =Rs.9600
Selling price of the item
=9600 $\times \frac{95}{100}\times \frac{105}{100}$
=Rs.9576
Hence, required loss
=9600-9576
=Rs.24

Incorrect

Cost price of the item =Rs.9600
Selling price of the item
=9600 $\times \frac{95}{100}\times \frac{105}{100}$
=Rs.9576
Hence, required loss
=9600-9576
=Rs.24
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
Study the table carefully ta answer the questions that follow :

What was the total number of failed candidates from school-C in the year 2008 and the number of candidates who appeared in the exam from school-D in the year 2006 ?
- 335
- 325
- 322
- 332
- None of these
Correct

Required number of candidates
=(354-258)+235
=96+235
=331

Incorrect

Required number of candidates
=(354-258)+235
=96+235
=331
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

In which year was the difference between the number of candidates who appeared and passed in the exam from school-B second lowest?
- 2004
- 2005
- 2006
- 2007
- 2008
Correct

In year 2004 = 445 - 354 = 91
In year 2005 = 545 - 435 = 110
In year 2006 = 664- 454=210
In year 2007 = 345 -144 = 201
In year 2008 = 584 - 354 = 23O
Hence, in year 2005 the difference between the
appeared and passed candidates from school-B was
second lowest.

Incorrect

In year 2004 = 445 - 354 = 91
In year 2005 = 545 - 435 = 110
In year 2006 = 664- 454=210
In year 2007 = 345 -144 = 201
In year 2008 = 584 - 354 = 23O
Hence, in year 2005 the difference between the
appeared and passed candidates from school-B was
second lowest.
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
Study the table carefully ta answer the questions that follow :

What was the respective ratio between the number of candidates who appeared from school-C in the year 2006 and the number of candidates who passed in the exam
from school-D in the Year 2009 ?
- 11 : 4
- 11 : 5
- 5 : 11
- 9 : 11
- None of these
Correct

Required respective ratio
= 693 : 252
= 11 : 4

Incorrect

Required respective ratio
= 693 : 252
= 11 : 4
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
Study the table carefully to answer the question that follow :

Number of candidates who passed in the exam from school B in the year 2005 was approximately what per cent of number of candidates who appeared from
school-A in the Year 2008?
- 76
- 87
- 90
- 84
- 80
Correct

Required percentage
= $\frac{435}{546}\times 100$
=79.67%
=80%(Approx.)

Incorrect

Required percentage
= $\frac{435}{546}\times 100$
=79.67%
=80%(Approx.)
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow :

What was the approximate percent increase in the number of candidates who passed in the exam from school-A in the year 2009 as compared to the previous year?
- 22
- 39
- 26
- 30
- 34
Correct

Required percentage

= $\frac{435-346}{346}\times 100$

= $\frac{89}{346}\times 100$

=25.72%

=26%(Approx.)

Incorrect

Required percentage

= $\frac{435-346}{346}\times 100$

= $\frac{89}{346}\times 100$

=25.72%

=26%(Approx.)
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
Study the fol]owing graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :

What was the average number of soldiers recruited in the Navy overall the Years together?
- 25000
- 24000
- 2400
- 28000
- None of these
Correct

Required average number of soldiers
= $\frac{(5+10+15+30+40+50)}{6}\times 100$
= $\frac{150}{6}\times 100$
=25000

Incorrect

Required average number of soldiers
= $\frac{(5+10+15+30+40+50)}{6}\times 100$
= $\frac{150}{6}\times 100$
=25000
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :

Number of soldiers recruited in Navy in the year 2009 was what percentage of soldiers recruited in Army in the year 2006 ?
- 140
- 150
- 160
- 180
- None of thes
Correct

Required percentage
= $\frac{40}{25}\times 100$
=160%

Incorrect

Required percentage
= $\frac{40}{25}\times 100$
=160%
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :

If 30 per cent of soldiers recruited in Airforce in the year 2010 was female then what is the number of males recruited in Air force in that year?
- 63000
- 6300
- 61000
- 6100
- None of these
Correct

Required numbers of males
= $90\times \frac{(100-30)}{100}\times 1000$
= $90\times \frac{70}{100}\times 1000$
=63000

Incorrect

Required numbers of males
= $90\times \frac{(100-30)}{100}\times 1000$
= $90\times \frac{70}{100}\times 1000$
=63000
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :

What was the respective ratio between the number of soldiers recruited for Airforce in the year 2005 and the number soldiers recruited in Army in the year 2009 ?
- 2 : 15
- 5 : 13
- 2 : 17
- 15 : 4
- None of these
Correct

Required respective ratio

= 10 : 75

= 2 : 15

Incorrect

Required respective ratio

= 10 : 75

= 2 : 15
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow :

What was approximate percentage decrease in number of soldiers recruited in Army in the year 2008 as compared to the previous year ?
- 20
- 23
- 38
- 30
- 33
Correct

Required decrease percentage
= $\frac{45-30}{45}\times 100$
= $\frac{15}{45}\times 100$
=33.33%
=33%(Approx.)

Incorrect

Required decrease percentage
= $\frac{45-30}{45}\times 100$
= $\frac{15}{45}\times 100$
=33.33%
=33%(Approx.)
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
What amount of compound interest can be obtained on an amount of Rs. 4800 @ 6 % per annum at the end of 2 yr?
- Rs. 544.96
- Rs. 576
- Rs. 593.28
- Rs. 588
- None of these
Correct

$Compund \, \, Interest=4800\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{6}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \left ( \frac{52}{50} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{53^{2}-50^{2}}{50^{2}} \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{\left ( 53-50 \right )\left ( 53+50 \right )}{2500} \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{\left ( 3 \right )\left ( 103 \right )}{2500} \right ]=\, \,Rs \, \,593.28$

Incorrect

$Compund \, \, Interest=4800\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{6}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \left ( \frac{52}{50} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{53^{2}-50^{2}}{50^{2}} \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{\left ( 53-50 \right )\left ( 53+50 \right )}{2500} \right ]$

$=4800\left [ \frac{\left ( 3 \right )\left ( 103 \right )}{2500} \right ]=\, \,Rs \, \,593.28$
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
What would be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 2000 at the rate of 15% per annum after 3 yr?
- Rs. 1141.75
- Rs. 1209.75
- Rs. 1041.75
- Rs. 1248.75
- None of these
Correct

$Compund\,Interest=2000\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{15}{100} \right )^{3} -1\right ]$

$=2000\left [ \left ( \frac{23}{20} \right )^{3}-1 \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{23^{3}-20^{3}}{20^{3}} \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{12167-8000}{8000} \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{4167}{8000} \right ]=\,Rs\,1041.75$

Incorrect

$Compund\,Interest=2000\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{15}{100} \right )^{3} -1\right ]$

$=2000\left [ \left ( \frac{23}{20} \right )^{3}-1 \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{23^{3}-20^{3}}{20^{3}} \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{12167-8000}{8000} \right ]$

$=2000\left [ \frac{4167}{8000} \right ]=\,Rs\,1041.75$
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
A sum of money doubles itself in 4 yr at compound interest. It will amount to 8 times itself at the same rate of interest in
- 18 yr
- 12 yr
- 16 yr
- 24 yr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

The sum doubles in 4 yr.
$\therefore$ It will be 8 times i.e.,2³, times in 3 x 4 = 12 yr
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2yr at 3% per annum be Rs. 101.50, then the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate and for the same time will be
- Rs. 90
- Rs. 95.50
- Rs. 100
- Rs. 98.25
- None of these
Correct

Let the sum be Rs. x .

$\therefore 101.50=x\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{3}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1015}{10}=x\left [ \frac{103^{2}-100^{2}}{10000} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1015}{10}=x.\frac{\left ( 3 \right )\left ( 203 \right )}{10000}$

$x=\frac{1015\times 1000}{3\times 203}=\frac{5000}{3}$

$\therefore\, Simple\,Interest=\frac{5000\times3\times 2}{3\times 1000}=Rs \, \, 100$

Incorrect

Let the sum be Rs. x .

$\therefore 101.50=x\left [ \left ( 1+\frac{3}{100} \right )^{2}-1 \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1015}{10}=x\left [ \frac{103^{2}-100^{2}}{10000} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1015}{10}=x.\frac{\left ( 3 \right )\left ( 203 \right )}{10000}$

$x=\frac{1015\times 1000}{3\times 203}=\frac{5000}{3}$

$\therefore\, Simple\,Interest=\frac{5000\times3\times 2}{3\times 1000}=Rs \, \, 100$
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
Shivangi invested Rs. 15000 at the rate of interest of 10% per annum for 1 yr. If the interest is compounded every six months, what amount wilt shivang get,at the end of the year?
- Rs. 16537.50
- Rs. 16500
- Rs. 16525.50
- Rs. 18150
- None of these
Correct

$The\,amount=15000\left (1+\frac{\frac{10}{2}}{100} \right )^{1\times 2}$

$=15000\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )^{2}$

$=15000\left ( \frac{21}{20} \right )^{2}=15000\times \frac{441}{400}=\, \, Rs\, \, 16537.50$

Incorrect

$The\,amount=15000\left (1+\frac{\frac{10}{2}}{100} \right )^{1\times 2}$

$=15000\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )^{2}$

$=15000\left ( \frac{21}{20} \right )^{2}=15000\times \frac{441}{400}=\, \, Rs\, \, 16537.50$
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
The difference between CI and SI on a certain,sum at 4% for 3 yr is Rs. 608. The sum is
- Rs. 25000
- Rs.75000
- Rs. 100000
- Rs. 125000
- None of these
Correct

$608=P\left ( \frac{4+300}{100} \right )\left ( \frac{4}{100} \right )^{2}$

$\Rightarrow P=\frac{608\times 100\times 100\times 100}{304\times 16}=Rs\, 125000$

Incorrect

$608=P\left ( \frac{4+300}{100} \right )\left ( \frac{4}{100} \right )^{2}$

$\Rightarrow P=\frac{608\times 100\times 100\times 100}{304\times 16}=Rs\, 125000$
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
Ram invests Rs. 5000 in a bond which gives interest at 4%
per annum during the first year, 5% during the second year and 10% during the third year. How much does he get at the third year?

get at the end of the third Year?
- Rs. 5060
- Rs. 5900
- Rs. 6000
- Rs. 6006
- None of these
Correct

$He\, will \,get=5000\left ( 1+\frac{4}{100} \right )\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )\left ( 1+\frac{10}{100} \right )$

$=5000\left ( \frac{26}{25} \right )\left ( \frac{21}{20} \right )\left ( \frac{11}{10} \right ) = Rs \,6006$

Incorrect

$He\, will \,get=5000\left ( 1+\frac{4}{100} \right )\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )\left ( 1+\frac{10}{100} \right )$

$=5000\left ( \frac{26}{25} \right )\left ( \frac{21}{20} \right )\left ( \frac{11}{10} \right ) = Rs \,6006$
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
An amount of Rs. 25220 borrowed at 5% per annum, compounded yearly, is to be repaid in 3 equal instalments. The amount of each instalment is
- Rs. 9261
- Rs. 9100
- Rs. 9050
- Rs. 8930
- None of these
Correct

Let the amount of each installment be Rs x.

$\therefore \, \, \, 25220=\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )}+\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right) ^{2}}+\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right ) ^{3}}$

$\Rightarrow \, \, 25220=x\left [ \frac{20}{21} +\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )^{2}+\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )^{3}\right]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, 25220=x\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )\left [ 1+\frac{20}{21}+\frac{400}{441} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, 25220\times \frac{21}{20}=x\left [ \frac{441+420+400}{441} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, x=25220\times \frac{21}{20}\times \frac{441}{1261}=Rs\, 9261$

Incorrect

Let the amount of each installment be Rs x.

$\therefore \, \, \, 25220=\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right )}+\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right) ^{2}}+\frac{x}{\left ( 1+\frac{5}{100} \right ) ^{3}}$

$\Rightarrow \, \, 25220=x\left [ \frac{20}{21} +\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )^{2}+\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )^{3}\right]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, 25220=x\left ( \frac{20}{21} \right )\left [ 1+\frac{20}{21}+\frac{400}{441} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, 25220\times \frac{21}{20}=x\left [ \frac{441+420+400}{441} \right ]$

$\Rightarrow \, \, \, x=25220\times \frac{21}{20}\times \frac{441}{1261}=Rs\, 9261$
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
What day was it on 1st Jan 2004?
- Tuesday
- Monday
- Saturday
- Thursday
Correct

1st Jan, 2004 = (2003 years + 1.01.2004)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 2000 = 0

Numbers of odd days in 3 ordinary years = 3.

Total odd day in year 2003 = (0 + 3) = 3.

Jan
1 = 1 odd day .

Total odd days = (3 + 1) = 4

Hence, the required day is Thursday.

Incorrect

1st Jan, 2004 = (2003 years + 1.01.2004)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 2000 = 0

Numbers of odd days in 3 ordinary years = 3.

Total odd day in year 2003 = (0 + 3) = 3.

Jan
1 = 1 odd day .

Total odd days = (3 + 1) = 4

Hence, the required day is Thursday.
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
What day was it on 2nd may 2010?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Friday
Correct

2nd may 2010 = (2009 years + period from 1.01.2010 to 2.05.2010)

Counting odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 2000 = 0

Numbers of odd days 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) = (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 odd days = 4 odd days.

Total Odd day in 2009 year = (0 + 4) = 4 odd day

Jan Feb Mar Apr May
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 2 = 122 days

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3 odd day

∴ Total number of days = (3 + 4) = 7.

Hence, the required day is Sunday.

Incorrect

2nd may 2010 = (2009 years + period from 1.01.2010 to 2.05.2010)

Counting odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 2000 = 0

Numbers of odd days 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) = (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 odd days = 4 odd days.

Total Odd day in 2009 year = (0 + 4) = 4 odd day

Jan Feb Mar Apr May
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 2 = 122 days

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3 odd day

∴ Total number of days = (3 + 4) = 7.

Hence, the required day is Sunday.
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
What was the day on 8th March 1995?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
Correct

8th March, 1995 = (1994 years + Period form 1.01.1995 to 8.03.1995)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

94 years = (23 leap years + 71 ordinary years)

⇒ (23 × 2 + 71 × 1) = 117 odd days ⇒ (16 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

1994 years have = (0 + 5 + 1) = 6 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar
31 + 28 + 8 = 67 days = (9 weeks + 4 odd days) = 4 odd days

Total numbers of odd days = (6 + 4) = 10 = 3,

Hence, the required day is Wednesday.

Incorrect

8th March, 1995 = (1994 years + Period form 1.01.1995 to 8.03.1995)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

94 years = (23 leap years + 71 ordinary years)

⇒ (23 × 2 + 71 × 1) = 117 odd days ⇒ (16 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

1994 years have = (0 + 5 + 1) = 6 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar
31 + 28 + 8 = 67 days = (9 weeks + 4 odd days) = 4 odd days

Total numbers of odd days = (6 + 4) = 10 = 3,

Hence, the required day is Wednesday.
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
What was the day on 13th April 1999?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
Correct

13th April, 1999 = (1998 years + Period from 1.01.199 to 13.04.1999)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

98 years = (24 leap year + 74 ordinary years) ⇒ (24 × 2 + 74 × 1) = (48 + 74) = 122 days.

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3odd days

∴ 1998 years have = (0 + 1 + 3) = 4 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar April
31 + 28 + 31 + 13 = 103 days

⇒ 103 days = (14 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

∴ Total number of odd days = (5 + 4) = 9 = 2.

Hence, the required day is Tuesday.

Incorrect

13th April, 1999 = (1998 years + Period from 1.01.199 to 13.04.1999)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

98 years = (24 leap year + 74 ordinary years) ⇒ (24 × 2 + 74 × 1) = (48 + 74) = 122 days.

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3odd days

∴ 1998 years have = (0 + 1 + 3) = 4 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar April
31 + 28 + 31 + 13 = 103 days

⇒ 103 days = (14 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

∴ Total number of odd days = (5 + 4) = 9 = 2.

Hence, the required day is Tuesday.
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
What was the day on 14th Feb 2010?
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Friday
- Sunday
Correct

14th Feb, 2010 = (2009 years + Period from 1.01.2010 to 14.02.2010)

Number of odd days in 2000 = 0.

Number of odd days in 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) ⇒ (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 days = 4 odd days
(When 11 is divided by 7, it gives 4 as the remainder.)

∴ 2009 years have = (0 + 4) = 4 odd days

Jan Feb
31 + 14 = 45 days ⇒ (6 weeks + 3 days) = 3 odd days.

∴ Total numbers of odd days = (0 + 4 + 3) = 7 odd days.

It means the required day is Sunday.

Incorrect

14th Feb, 2010 = (2009 years + Period from 1.01.2010 to 14.02.2010)

Number of odd days in 2000 = 0.

Number of odd days in 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) ⇒ (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 days = 4 odd days
(When 11 is divided by 7, it gives 4 as the remainder.)

∴ 2009 years have = (0 + 4) = 4 odd days

Jan Feb
31 + 14 = 45 days ⇒ (6 weeks + 3 days) = 3 odd days.

∴ Total numbers of odd days = (0 + 4 + 3) = 7 odd days.

It means the required day is Sunday.
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
What was the day on 5th may 2003?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Friday
- Saturday
Correct

5th May, 2003 = (2002 years + Periods from 1.01.2003 to 5.05.2003)

Number of odd days in year 2000 = 0

Number of odd days in 2 ordinary years = 2

∴ 2002 years have = (0 + 2) = 2 odd days

Jan Feb Mar April May
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 5 = 125 days

⇒ 125 days = (17 weeks + 6 days) = 6 odd days

Total number of odd days = (2 + 6) = 8 = 1 odd day

It means the required day is Monday.

Incorrect

5th May, 2003 = (2002 years + Periods from 1.01.2003 to 5.05.2003)

Number of odd days in year 2000 = 0

Number of odd days in 2 ordinary years = 2

∴ 2002 years have = (0 + 2) = 2 odd days

Jan Feb Mar April May
31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 5 = 125 days

⇒ 125 days = (17 weeks + 6 days) = 6 odd days

Total number of odd days = (2 + 6) = 8 = 1 odd day

It means the required day is Monday.
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
In each of the following systems, check whether it is consistent or inconsistent. If consistent, find whether it has unique solution or an infinite

number of solutions.

(i) 4x – 3y = 11, 8x – 6y – 7 = 0

(ii) $3x+\frac{5}{2}y\: =\: 7,\: 9x+\frac{15}{2}y-21\: =\: 0$

(iii)X + y = 3, 2x + 5y = 12
- inconsistent, Consistent and Consistent
- All Consistent
- All Inconsistent
- None of these
Correct

(i) The given equations are,

4x – 3y -11 = 0

8x – 6y – 7 = 0

Now, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{4}{8}\: =\: \frac{1}{2},\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-3}{-6}\: =\: \frac{1}{2}$

And $\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-11}{-7}\: =\: \frac{11}{7}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}?\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

Hence, the given system of equations has no solution i.e. it is inconsistent.

(ii) The given equations are,

$3x+\frac{5}{2}y-7\: =\: 0$

$9x+\frac{15}{2}y-21\: =\: 0$

Now, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{3}{9}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}\: \: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{\frac{5}{2}}{\frac{15}{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}$

$\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-7}{-21}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

Hence, the given system is Consistent and it has infinite number of solutions.

(iii) The given equations are

x+ y - = 3

2x + 5y – 12 = 0

Here, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{2},\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{5},\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{4}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}$

So, the given system is consistent and it has a unique solution.

Incorrect

(i) The given equations are,

4x – 3y -11 = 0

8x – 6y – 7 = 0

Now, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{4}{8}\: =\: \frac{1}{2},\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-3}{-6}\: =\: \frac{1}{2}$

And $\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-11}{-7}\: =\: \frac{11}{7}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}?\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

Hence, the given system of equations has no solution i.e. it is inconsistent.

(ii) The given equations are,

$3x+\frac{5}{2}y-7\: =\: 0$

$9x+\frac{15}{2}y-21\: =\: 0$

Now, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{3}{9}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}\: \: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{\frac{5}{2}}{\frac{15}{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}$

$\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{-7}{-21}\: =\: \frac{1}{3}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

Hence, the given system is Consistent and it has infinite number of solutions.

(iii) The given equations are

x+ y - = 3

2x + 5y – 12 = 0

Here, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{2},\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{5},\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\: =\: \frac{1}{4}$

Thus, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}$

So, the given system is consistent and it has a unique solution.
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
For what value of ‘m’ will the system

A+ 2b – 3 = 0, 5a + ma + 7 = 0, have

(i) A unique solution

(ii) No solution

(iii) Infinite number of solutions
- ≠10, 10, Undefined
- 10, -10, defined
- All Undefined
- None of these
Correct

The given system of equations are

a + 2b – 3 = 0

5a + mb + 7 = 0

Where, $a_{1}: =\: 1,\: b_{1}\: =\: 2,\: c_{1}\: =\: -3$

$a_{2}: =\: 5,\: b_{2}\: =\: m,\: c_{2}\: =\: 7$

(i) For unique solution, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}?\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{5}?\frac{2}{m}$

$\Rightarrow$ m ≠ 10.

(ii) For no solution

$\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}?\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{5}\: =\: \frac{2}{m}?\frac{-3}{7}$

$\Rightarrow$ m = 10.

(iii) For infinite number of solutions

$\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

$\frac{1}{5}\: =\: \frac{2}{m}\: =\: \frac{-3}{7}$

But there is no value of m for which the above relations are true. So, the given system cannot have infinite solutions whatever may be the value of m.

Incorrect

The given system of equations are

a + 2b – 3 = 0

5a + mb + 7 = 0

Where, $a_{1}: =\: 1,\: b_{1}\: =\: 2,\: c_{1}\: =\: -3$

$a_{2}: =\: 5,\: b_{2}\: =\: m,\: c_{2}\: =\: 7$

(i) For unique solution, $\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}?\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{5}?\frac{2}{m}$

$\Rightarrow$ m ≠ 10.

(ii) For no solution

$\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}?\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{5}\: =\: \frac{2}{m}?\frac{-3}{7}$

$\Rightarrow$ m = 10.

(iii) For infinite number of solutions

$\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}\: =\: \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\: =\: \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}$

$\frac{1}{5}\: =\: \frac{2}{m}\: =\: \frac{-3}{7}$

But there is no value of m for which the above relations are true. So, the given system cannot have infinite solutions whatever may be the value of m.
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
20 Five years, ago a man was thrice as old as his son and 10 years later, he shall be twice as old as his son. Find their present ages.
- 55, 77
- 50, 20
- 30, 50
- None of these
Correct

Let the present ages of the man and the son be x and y years respectively

Then, five years ago, (x-5) = 3(y-5)… (i)

And 10 years later, (x+10) = 2(y+10)..(ii)

Subtracting (i) from (ii), to eliminate x,

Y = 20

$\Rightarrow$ x = 50

Hence, the present ages of man and his son are 50 years and 20 years respectively.

Incorrect

Let the present ages of the man and the son be x and y years respectively

Then, five years ago, (x-5) = 3(y-5)… (i)

And 10 years later, (x+10) = 2(y+10)..(ii)

Subtracting (i) from (ii), to eliminate x,

Y = 20

$\Rightarrow$ x = 50

Hence, the present ages of man and his son are 50 years and 20 years respectively.
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
The sum of the reciprocals of the ages of two brothers is five times the difference of the reciprocals of their ages. If the ratio of the product of their ages to the sum of their ages is 14.1: 1, find their ages.
- 36, 24
- 26, 34
- 20, 14
- None of these
Correct

Let the ages of the two brothers be x years and y years respectively, then, given that,

$\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\: =\: 5\left ( \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} \right )$ ....(i)

And $\frac{xy}{x+y}\: =\: \frac{14.4}{1}\: =\: \frac{144}{10}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{x}{y}\: =\: \frac{72}{5}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\: =\: \frac{72}{5}$ ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii) $\Rightarrow \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}\: =\: \frac{5}{72}$ ..(iii)

From (ii) and (iii) x = 24

Y = 36

Hence, the ages of two brothers are 36 years and 24 years respectively

Incorrect

Let the ages of the two brothers be x years and y years respectively, then, given that,

$\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\: =\: 5\left ( \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y} \right )$ ....(i)

And $\frac{xy}{x+y}\: =\: \frac{14.4}{1}\: =\: \frac{144}{10}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{x}{y}\: =\: \frac{72}{5}$

$\Rightarrow \frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\: =\: \frac{72}{5}$ ...(ii)

From (i) and (ii) $\Rightarrow \frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{y}\: =\: \frac{5}{72}$ ..(iii)

From (ii) and (iii) x = 24

Y = 36

Hence, the ages of two brothers are 36 years and 24 years respectively
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
If the length and breadth of a rectangular field are increased the area increases by 50Vo. If the increase in length was 20Vo, by what percentage was the breadth increased?
- 30%
- 25%
- 20%
- Data inadequate
Correct

Incorrect

Let the breadth of rectangular field is increased by a %
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
A field is 25 m long and 20 m broad. A path 3 m wide is constructed all around the field and surrounds it. The total area of the path is
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Total area ofthe path = area of rectangle A' B, C, D, - area of rectangle ABCD
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
The area of shaded portion, in the given figure, is
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect

Area of shaded portion

= Area of sector OA' B' - area of sector AOB

= 2.75 m²
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
What was the day on 8th March 1995?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
Correct

8th March, 1995 = (1994 years + Period form 1.01.1995 to 8.03.1995)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

94 years = (23 leap years + 71 ordinary years)

⇒ (23 × 2 + 71 × 1) = 117 odd days ⇒ (16 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

1994 years have = (0 + 5 + 1) = 6 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar
31 + 28 + 8 = 67 days = (9 weeks + 4 odd days) = 4 odd days

Total numbers of odd days = (6 + 4) = 10 = 3,

Hence, the required day is Wednesday.

Incorrect

8th March, 1995 = (1994 years + Period form 1.01.1995 to 8.03.1995)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

94 years = (23 leap years + 71 ordinary years)

⇒ (23 × 2 + 71 × 1) = 117 odd days ⇒ (16 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

1994 years have = (0 + 5 + 1) = 6 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar
31 + 28 + 8 = 67 days = (9 weeks + 4 odd days) = 4 odd days

Total numbers of odd days = (6 + 4) = 10 = 3,

Hence, the required day is Wednesday.
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
What was the day on 13th April 1999?
- Sunday
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
Correct

13th April, 1999 = (1998 years + Period from 1.01.199 to 13.04.1999)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

98 years = (24 leap year + 74 ordinary years) ⇒ (24 × 2 + 74 × 1) = (48 + 74) = 122 days.

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3odd days

∴ 1998 years have = (0 + 1 + 3) = 4 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar April
31 + 28 + 31 + 13 = 103 days

⇒ 103 days = (14 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

∴ Total number of odd days = (5 + 4) = 9 = 2.

Hence, the required day is Tuesday.

Incorrect

13th April, 1999 = (1998 years + Period from 1.01.199 to 13.04.1999)

Counting of odd days:

Numbers of odd days in 1600 years = 0.

Numbers of odd days in 300 years = (5 × 3) = 15 = 1.
(When 15 is divided by 7, it gives 1 as the remainder.)

98 years = (24 leap year + 74 ordinary years) ⇒ (24 × 2 + 74 × 1) = (48 + 74) = 122 days.

⇒ 122 days = (17 weeks + 3 day) = 3odd days

∴ 1998 years have = (0 + 1 + 3) = 4 odd days.

Jan Feb Mar April
31 + 28 + 31 + 13 = 103 days

⇒ 103 days = (14 weeks + 5 days) = 5 odd days

∴ Total number of odd days = (5 + 4) = 9 = 2.

Hence, the required day is Tuesday.
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
What was the day on 14th Feb 2010?
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Friday
- Sunday
Correct

14th Feb, 2010 = (2009 years + Period from 1.01.2010 to 14.02.2010)

Number of odd days in 2000 = 0.

Number of odd days in 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) ⇒ (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 days = 4 odd days
(When 11 is divided by 7, it gives 4 as the remainder.)

∴ 2009 years have = (0 + 4) = 4 odd days

Jan Feb
31 + 14 = 45 days ⇒ (6 weeks + 3 days) = 3 odd days.

∴ Total numbers of odd days = (0 + 4 + 3) = 7 odd days.

It means the required day is Sunday.

Incorrect

14th Feb, 2010 = (2009 years + Period from 1.01.2010 to 14.02.2010)

Number of odd days in 2000 = 0.

Number of odd days in 9 years = (2 leap years + 7 ordinary years) ⇒ (2 × 2 + 7 × 1) = 11 days = 4 odd days
(When 11 is divided by 7, it gives 4 as the remainder.)

∴ 2009 years have = (0 + 4) = 4 odd days

Jan Feb
31 + 14 = 45 days ⇒ (6 weeks + 3 days) = 3 odd days.

∴ Total numbers of odd days = (0 + 4 + 3) = 7 odd days.

It means the required day is Sunday.
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
The monthly income of a person was reduced by 10%. By what percent should his reduced monthly income be raised so as to bring it at par with his original income?
- 10%
- 20%
- 30%
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
Which one of the following is always associated with 'justice'?
- Hypocrisy
- Legitimate
- Magnanimity
- Diminutiveness
Correct

Legitimate

Incorrect

Legitimate
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
An Auditor rejects 0.25% of the meters as defective. How many will be examine to reject 5?
- 1350
- 2000
- 2200
- 2500
Correct

Competitor

Incorrect

Competitor
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
If Aman's salary is 20% less than Vishal's salary, by how much percent is Vishal's salary more than Aman's ?
- 15%
- 20%
- 25%
- 30%
- 5
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
Nupur invest Rs. 89856, which is 26% of her annual income, in mutual funds. What is her monthly income?
- Rs. 38606.25
- Rs. 28990
- Rs. 28800
- Rs. 23980.50
- 5
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of Punctuation , If any)

The band have been/ (1) performing at many cause-oriented concerts /(2) to encourage people to come forward and /(3) lend their support to the noble cause. /(4)No error/(5)
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct

Use'has' in place of 'have'.

Incorrect

Use'has' in place of 'have'.
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of Punctuation , If any)

As market leaders, /(1) we have always been at /(2) the forefront of creating awareness /(3) between the public /(4) No error /(5)
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct

Say'among the public'.

Incorrect

Say'among the public'.
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of Punctuation , If any)

If the IPL has succeeded in drawing /(1) an audience across the country, it is because /(2) cricket has always had a strong foundation /(3) and a dedicated audience. /(4)No error /(5 )
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct

The sentence is correct.

Incorrect

The sentence is correct.
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of Punctuation , If any)

In view of the intense cold wave conditions /(1) prevailing in the state, the government declared /(2) holidays in all the schools /(3) for a period of ten days. /(4) No error /(5)
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
Correct

Add'has' after'government'.

Incorrect

Add'has' after'government'.
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
(A-O) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. 'Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

It was in the offing. With shortages mounting across the board for water as they are for energy, it was only inevitable that the Central government would be stirred into starting a Bureau of Water Efficiency (BWE), much like the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) that was launched some years ago.

Early reports suggest that the draft norms for various sectors consuming water will be created by the BWE soon. The alarm bells have been ringing for some years now Water availability per capita in India has fallen from about 5 million liters in the 1950s to 1.3 million liters in 2010-that's a staggering 75 per cent drop in 50 years.
Nearly 60 per cent of India's aquifers have slumped to critical levels in just the last 15 years. The rate at which borewells are being plunged in every city with no law to ban such extraction, groundwater tables have depleted alarmingly.

The BEE's efforts in the last seven years have only been cosmetic. The bureau has looked at efficiency rating systems for white goods in the domestic sector, and has not paid attention to the massive consumption of energy in metals manufacture, paper, and textiles. These sectors are very intense in both energy and water consumption. But very little attention has been paid to the water and energy used per tonne of steel or cement or aluminium that we buy, and without significant changes in these areas, the overali situation is unlikely to change.

Use of water is inextricably interlinked with energy. One does not exist without the other'.The BWE should steer clear of the early mistakes of BEE - of focusing on the
'softer targets' in the domestic sector. Nearly 80 per cent of fresh water is used by agriculture, with industry coming a dose second. The domestic sector's consumption of fresh water is in single digits. So the BWE's priority should be to look at measures that will get farmers and industrialists to follow good practices in water use. Water resources have to be made, by law, an indivisible national asset. The protection and withdrawal of this resource, as well as its sustainable development are of general importance and therefore in the public interest. This will mean that individuals and organisation may own land but not water or the other resources that lie below the first 20 meters of
the surface of those lands.Drilling of borewells into such national assets will have to be banned, or at the very least they must be regulated. What would be more sensible for the new water bureau to do would be to look at some of the low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly, with laws that can emanate from the Centre, without the risk of either dilution or inaction from state administrations. The other tactical approach that the BWE can adopt is to devise a policy that addresses the serious water challenge in industry segments across a swathe of companies : this will be easier than taking on the more disparate domestic sector which hurts the water crisis less than industry. Implementing a law is more feasible when the concentration is dense and identifiable. Industry offers this advantage more than the domestic or the commercial sector of hotels and offices.

As for agriculture, though the country,s water requirement is as high as 80 per cent, the growing of water within the loop in agriculture de-risks the challenge of any perceived deficit. Rice, wheat, sugarcane are crops that need water-logging, which ensures groundwater restoration. Surface water evaporation doesn't amount to any more than 7-8 per cent and only strengthens precipitation and rainfall. Agriculture and water need is not quite as much a threat as industrv and domestic sectors that account for the rest of the 20 per cent.

The primary challenge in industry and the building sector is that no conscious legal measures have been enacted that stipulate 'growing your own water, with measures that will 'put all water in a loop1 in any residential or commercial building. This involves treating all used water to a grade that it can be 'upcyled' for use in flush tanks and for gardens across all our cities with the polluter owning the responsibility for treating and for reuse. The drop in fresh water demand can be dramatic with such upcycle, reuse, and recycle of treated water. Water by itself in industry and the domestic sector, is not as much a challenge as pollution of water. Not enough measures exist yet to ensure that such polluters shift the water back for reuse. If legislation can ensure that water is treated and reused for specific purposes within industry as well as in the domestic sector, this will make all the difference to the crisis on fresh water.

So, is the case in industry, especially in sectors like textiles, aluminium and steel. Agriculture offers us the amusing irony of the educated urbanites dependent on cereals like rice and wheat that consume 4000 liters of water for every kg, while the farmer lives on the more nutritious millets that consume less than half the quantity. Sugarcane consumes as much as 12000 liters of water fora kilo of cane that you buy!

A listing of such correlations of water used by every product that we use in our daily lives v. make much better sense than any elaborate rating-system from the newly formed BWE. Such sensitizing with concerted awareness campaigns that the new Bureau drives will impact the urban consumer more than all the research findings that experts can present. What is important for us is to understand the life-cycle impact in a way that we see the connect between a product that we use and the resources it utilizes up to the point where we bring the visible connect to destruction of natural resources of our ecosystems.

A. How, according to the author, can the bureau sensitize the urban consumer about careful utilization of water?
- By encouraging them to consume more rice instead of millets daily and thereby reduce the amount of water consumption
- By providing them more insight into the water consumption cycle of the textile, aluminium and steel industries.
- By making them aware of the linkages between water consumption for daily activities and the resource utilization and subsequent ecological destruction associated with it.
- By publishing research findings of experts in popular media whereby people gain awareness on the impact of water misuse.
- By conducting elaborate drives which notify the urban population without the penalties levied on misuse of water resources
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
B.Why, according to the author, is the water consumption for agricultural activities the least risky?
- Proportion of water consumed for agricultural activities is much less as compared to that consumed for domestic and industrial purposes.
- Most farmers are aware of the popular methods of water conservation and hence do not allow wastage of water.
- Water 'is fairly recycled through groundwater restoration due to water-logging and surface water evaporation.
- Farmers in India mostly cultivate crops that require less amount of water.
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
C.Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
- Water Challenges in the New Millennium
- The Bureau of Water Efficiency Vs the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
- Unchecked Urban Consumption of Water
- Challenges of the Agricultural Sector and Water Resources
- The Route to Conservation of Water Resources
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
D.What does 'low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly' mean in the context of the passage?
- The Bureau should employ the cheapest methods possible to effectively control the current situation of improper usage of water resources
- The Bureau should target the industrial sector as well as the domestic sector to reduce water wastage.
- The Bureau should target the agricultural sector only for producing quick results in reducing wastage of water.
- The Bureau should ensure that all the state officials concerned with the measures are actively involved.
- The Bureau should start with adopting measures which are simple to execute and produce immediate results in reducing water wastage.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
E.Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the indication/s of a water crisis?

(a) Many agrarian areas in the country are facing a , drought - like situation.
(b) Almost three-fifth of the naturally available water has been reduced to a very critical level in a relatively short span of time.
(c) There has been a significant drop in the availability of water over the past fifty years.
- Only(b)
- Only (a) and (c)
- Only (c)
- Only (b) and (c)
- All (a),(b) and (c)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions, a statement/group of statements is given followed by some conclusions. Without resolving anything yourself choose the conclusion which logically follows from the given statements).

Soldiers serve their country
- Men generally serve their country.
- Those who serve their country are soldiers.
- Some men who are soldiers serve their country.
- Women do not serve their country because they are not soldiers.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
Television convinces viewers that the likelihood of their becoming the victim of a violent crime is extremely high; at the same time by its very nature, TV persuades viewers to passively accept whatever happens to them.
- TV viewing promotes criminal behavior.
- TV viewers are most likely to be victimized than others.
- People should not watch TV.
- TV promotes a feeling of helpless vulnerability in viewers.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
A forest has as many sandal trees as it has Ashoka trees. Three-fourth of the trees are old ones and half of the trees are at the flowering stage.
- All Ashoka trees are at the flowering stage.
- All sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
- At least one-half of the Ashoka trees are old.
- One-half of the sandal trees are at the flowering stage.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
The government is soon going to introduce a bill which would permit the instituting of private universities under very strict directions.
- We have some private universities in our country even now.
- The demand for more universities is being stepped up.
- Such directions can also be issued without informing the Parliament.
- The government gives directions to establish anything in private sector.
- Unless and until the directions are given, the private universities can charge exorbitant fees.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
Statements: Although we have rating agencies like Crisil, ICRA, there is demand to have a separate rating agency for IT companies to protect investors.

Conclusions:

1. Assessment of financial worth of IT companies calls for separate set of skills, insight and competencies.
2. Now the investors investing in IT companies will get protection of their investment.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

The need for separate rating agency for IT companies clearly indicates that such assessment requires a separate set of skills. So, 1 follows. However, the statement indicates only the need or demand and neither the future course of action nor its after-effects can be judged. So, 2 does not follow.

Incorrect

The need for separate rating agency for IT companies clearly indicates that such assessment requires a separate set of skills. So, 1 follows. However, the statement indicates only the need or demand and neither the future course of action nor its after-effects can be judged. So, 2 does not follow.
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
Statements: The standard of education in private schools is much better than Municipal and Zila Parishad-run schools.

Conclusions:

1. The Municipal and Zila Pariskad should make serious efforts to improve standard of their schools.
2. All Municipal and Zila Parishad schools should be closed immediately.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

Clearly, the solution to the problem is not to close down the Municipal and Zila Parishad-run schools but to strive to improve the standard of education of these schools. So, only 1 follows while 2 does not.

Incorrect

Clearly, the solution to the problem is not to close down the Municipal and Zila Parishad-run schools but to strive to improve the standard of education of these schools. So, only 1 follows while 2 does not.
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
Statements: All the organised persons find time for rest. Sunita, in spite of her very busy schedule, finds time for rest.

Conclusions:

1. Sunita is an organised person.
2. Sunita is an industrious person.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
Correct

Sunita has a very busy schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still she finds time for rest. This means that she is an organised person. So, both 1 and 2 follow.

Incorrect

Sunita has a very busy schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still she finds time for rest. This means that she is an organised person. So, both 1 and 2 follow.
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
Statements: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.

Conclusions:

1. Crude oil must be imported.
2. Domestic demand should be reduced.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

The statement mentions that demand for oil is increasing faster than the production. So, either the demand must be reduced or oil must be imported to cope with the increasing demand. Thus, either 1 or 2 follows.

Incorrect

The statement mentions that demand for oil is increasing faster than the production. So, either the demand must be reduced or oil must be imported to cope with the increasing demand. Thus, either 1 or 2 follows.
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
Statements: Fashion is a form of ugliness so intolerable that we have to alter it every six months.

Conclusions:

1. Fashion designers do not understand the public mind very well.
2. The public by and large is highly susceptible to novelty.
- Only conclusion I follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

The statement asserts that people cannot stand any particular trend for long and seek change quite often. So, only 2 follows.

Incorrect

The statement asserts that people cannot stand any particular trend for long and seek change quite often. So, only 2 follows.
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
Statements: Until our country achieves economic equality, political freedom and democracy would be meaningless.

Conclusions:

1. Political freedom and democracy go hand in hand.
2. Economic equality leads to real political freedom and democracy
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

Nothing about the relation between political freedom and democracy is mentioned in the statement. So, 1 does not follow. But 2 directly follows from the given statement.

Incorrect

Nothing about the relation between political freedom and democracy is mentioned in the statement. So, 1 does not follow. But 2 directly follows from the given statement.
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
Statements: Jade plant has thick leaves and it requires little water.

Conclusions:

1. All plants with thick leaves require little water.
2. Jade plants may be grown in places where water is not in abundance.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

The statement talks of jade plants only and not 'all plants with thick leaves'. So, 1 does not follow. Also, since jade plants require little water, so they can be grown in places where water is not in abundance. So, 2 follows.

Incorrect

The statement talks of jade plants only and not 'all plants with thick leaves'. So, 1 does not follow. Also, since jade plants require little water, so they can be grown in places where water is not in abundance. So, 2 follows.
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
Statements: Use "Kraft" colours. They add colour to our life. - An advertisement.

Conclusions:

1. Catchy slogans do not attract people.
2. People like dark colours.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

The slogan given in the statement is definitely a catchy one which indicates that catchy slogans do attract people. So, 1 does not follow. Nothing about people's preference for colours can be deduced from the statement. Thus, 2 also does not follow.

Incorrect

The slogan given in the statement is definitely a catchy one which indicates that catchy slogans do attract people. So, 1 does not follow. Nothing about people's preference for colours can be deduced from the statement. Thus, 2 also does not follow.
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
Statements: All those political prisoners were released on bail who had gone to jail for reasons other than political dharnas. Bail was not granted to persons involved in murders.

Conclusions:

1. No political - prisoner had committed murder.
2. Some politicians were not arrested.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

According to the statement, the political prisoners can be divided into two groups - those who were released and those who were put in jail for political dharnas. However, no person involved in murder was released. This means that no political prisoner had committed murder. So, 1 follows. Clearly, 2 is not directly related to the statement and does not follow.

Incorrect

According to the statement, the political prisoners can be divided into two groups - those who were released and those who were put in jail for political dharnas. However, no person involved in murder was released. This means that no political prisoner had committed murder. So, 1 follows. Clearly, 2 is not directly related to the statement and does not follow.
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
Statements: Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.

Conclusions:

1. Earlier there were fewer options available to man.
2. There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

Clearly, 1 directly follows from the statement while 2 cannot be deduced from it.

Incorrect

Clearly, 1 directly follows from the statement while 2 cannot be deduced from it.
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
Statements: Water supply in wards A and B of the city will be affected by about 50% on Friday because repairing work of the main lines is to be carried out.

Conclusions:

1. The residents in these wards should economize on water on Friday.
2. The residents in these wards should store some water on the previous day.
- Only conclusion 1 follows
- Only conclusion 2 follows
- Either 1 or 2 follows
- Neither 1 nor 2 follows
- Both 1 and 2 follow
Correct

Clearly, the information has been given beforehand so that the residents can collect water on the previous day and use less water on Friday. So, both 1 and 2 follow.

Incorrect

Clearly, the information has been given beforehand so that the residents can collect water on the previous day and use less water on Friday. So, both 1 and 2 follow.
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale themout.
(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.
(C) To fulfil the social objectives laid down by the masters of nationalisation, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.
(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum oflosses showed at Rs.3,369 crores.
The proper sequence should be :
- BACD
- DABC
- CBAD
- BCAD
- CDBA
Correct

Incorrect
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) However, different rulers and governments dealt with the different groups in a compartmentalised manner.
(B) Various situational and political changes have taken place over the past three and halfcenturies.
(C) This tendency resulted in deeply embedded fragmented South American Socii:ty which became even more prominent in the period 1948 until the commencement of the new constitution on May 19, 1994.
(D) South Africa is a racially divided society since the first European settlers arrived in 1652

The proper sequence should be :
- BDAC
- DBAC
- CABD
- ACDB
- BACD
Correct

Incorrect
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) Such a system will help identifu and groom executives for positions of strategists.
(B) Evaluation of performance is more often than not done for the purpose of reward or punishment for past performanee.
(C) They must become an integral part of the executive evaluation system.
(D) Even where the evaluation system is for one's promotion to assume higher responsibilities it rarely includes items that are a key for playing the role of strategists effectively, e.g., the skills for playrng the role of change agent and creative problem solving.
The proper sequence should be :
- DBAC
- DCBA
- ABCD
- BDCA
- CDBA
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) Finally the bureaucratic organisation took over from the pioneering enterprise.
(B) The nineteenth century was the age of entrepreneur, the self-made man.
(C) Thoughtful business administration took over from action centred business entrepreneurship.
(D) In the twenteenth century the rational executive took command.
The proper sequence should be :
- DBAC
- CABD
- BDCA
- BCDA
- DBAC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) But categorisation schemes are not always helpful in determining what one can do with or about organisational culture.
(B) Much of the literature on organisational cultures is focused on categorising types of cultures.
(C) It has taken the understanding of corporate culture far beyond what used to be called the informal organisation.
(D) This literature is both interesting and informative.
The proper sequence should be :
- BDAC
- BADC
- BCDA
- DABC
- DBAC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the five alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer

(A) Much of the argument that goes on around the alternative solution occurs because people hold different perceptions of the problem.
(B) One of the reasons that Japanese managers are perceived as making superior decisions compared to Western managers is that they spend a great deal of effort and time determining that the problem is correctly defined.
(C) Unfortunately, too often in the West, managers assume thbt the initial delinition of the situation is correct.
(D) Upto half the time in meetings is spent in asking "Is this the real problem ?"
The proper sequence should be :
- BDCA
- BCDA
- CBDA
- ACDB
- ABCD
Correct

Incorrect
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
He took me to a restaurant (1)/ and ordered for two cup (2)/ of cold coffee (3) which the waiter brought in an hours(4)/No error.
- He took me to a restaurant
- and ordered for two cup
- of cold coffee
- which the waiter brought in an hours
- No error.
Correct

Incorrect

Delete'/or' after order.
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
There are some animals (1)/than can live (2) both in water and land (3)/ without any difficulty. (4)/ No Error (5)
- There are some animals
- than can live
- both in water and land
- without any difficulty
- No Error
Correct

Incorrect

Place on before 'land'.
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
During his tour (1)/ to the south (2)/ he visited not only to Chennai (3)/ but also Karnataka. (4)/No Error (5)
- During his tour
- to the south
- he visited not only to Chennai
- but also Karnataka
- No Error
Correct

Incorrect

Delete 'to' Chennai.
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
The President Mr Kalam(1)/is much sought after(2)/by school student and (3) /is invited for many function (4)/ No errors.(5)
- The President Mr Kalam
- is much sought after
- by school student and
- is invited for many function
- No errors
Correct

Incorrect

Replace 'for' by 'to'.
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
Each occupation has its own .... bankers, lawyers and computer professionals, for example all use among themselves ....... that outsiders find difficult to follow.
- merits, incidents
- disadvantages, methods
- rewards, endearment
- jargon ,language
- problems, fundamentals
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
The two artists .. . markedly in their temperaments, one was reserved and courteous, the other ...... and boastful
- changed, irritable
- similar, jovial
- differed, rude
- appeared, funny
- addressed, ill-tempered
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
Many people believed that spices help .......... food; however nutritionists found that most spices were ........., of having any effect on growth of microbes present in the food.
- preserve, incapable
- produce, impossible
- save, preventive
- spoil, probable
- protect deprived
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
Despite a growing .......... that a lot needs to be done to help thole without clean water, a ..,..... says that more than 34 million people die every year of water borne diseases.
- interest, reason
- recognition, report
- fantasy, review
- authority, legend
- turbulence, logic
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
Water-borne diseases are the most .......... causes of infant deaths .......... the world.
- rare, according
- regular, at
- related, across
- common, throughout
- large, around
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- drained
- gone
- sucked
- released
- went
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- has
- have
- was
- did
- had
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- longer
- pump
- far
- candidate
- shorter
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Recent experiences that have demonstrated the (96) of financial systems to contagion from across national borders and the close correlation of the risks faced by financial systems across countries have (97) the necessity for greater homogeneity in the supervisory norms and practices of various countries and closer coordination between countries in terms of (98) their financial systems. India, while (99) the need to observe certain minimum universally accepted standards in areas (100) to the maintenance of stability in the international monetary system, has (101) a voluntary approach taking into account the institutional framework, legal infrastructure and stage of development of various countries. India's (102) to the process of convergence has been two-fold. At the international front, India has been closely associated with international bodies involved in the process of setting standards and (103) practices for effective supervision of financial system and has (104) to voice its opinion during the process of formulation of new standards. On the (105) front, the Reserve Bank, in consultation with the Government of India, set up a Standing Committee on International Financial Standards and Codes to guide the process of convergence to international standards and codes.
- implementing
- using
- jeopardizing
- formulating
- withholding
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Recent experiences that have demonstrated the (96) of financial systems to contagion from across national borders and the close correlation of the risks faced by financial systems across countries have (97) the necessity for greater homogeneity in the supervisory norms and practices of various countries and closer coordination between countries in terms of (98) their financial systems. India, while (99) the need to observe certain minimum universally accepted standards in areas (100) to the maintenance of stability in the international monetary system, has (101) a voluntary approach taking into account the institutional framework, legal infrastructure and stage of development of various countries. India's (102) to the process of convergence has been two-fold. At the international front, India has been closely associated with international bodies involved in the process of setting standards and (103) practices for effective supervision of financial system and has (104) to voice its opinion during the process of formulation of new standards. On the (105) front, the Reserve Bank, in consultation with the Government of India, set up a Standing Committee on International Financial Standards and Codes to guide the process of convergence to international standards and codes.
- mobilized
- sought
- gone
- forced
- shelved
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Recent experiences that have demonstrated the (96) of financial systems to contagion from across national borders and the close correlation of the risks faced by financial systems across countries have (97) the necessity for greater homogeneity in the supervisory norms and practices of various countries and closer coordination between countries in terms of (98) their financial systems. India, while (99) the need to observe certain minimum universally accepted standards in areas (100) to the maintenance of stability in the international monetary system, has (101) a voluntary approach taking into account the institutional framework, legal infrastructure and stage of development of various countries. India's (102) to the process of convergence has been two-fold. At the international front, India has been closely associated with international bodies involved in the process of setting standards and (103) practices for effective supervision of financial system and has (104) to voice its opinion during the process of formulation of new standards. On the (105) front, the Reserve Bank, in consultation with the Government of India, set up a Standing Committee on International Financial Standards and Codes to guide the process of convergence to international standards and codes.
- global
- liberal
- other
- fore
- domestic
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- joined
- broke
- dashed
- banged
- became
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- run out
- crash
- crush
- cajole
- motivate
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- no
- hardly
- many
- inexpensive
- most
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- variables
- attributes
- characteristics
- causes
- affect
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each number five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Whatever prosperity India enjoyed in the seventeenth centuries disappeared when the Mughal Empire (106) apart. The most immediate cause of this breakdown was the religious intolerance, which led to open rebellion. It was to (107) these revolts that the bigot ruler spent (108).years in the field with immense armies consuming the revenues of the country. There were, however, more deep-seated (109). The corruption of officials and the oppression of the masses steadily (110) away the empire's life blood. For some time there had been a noticeable deterioration in the character of the ruling class. Wars of secession (ll1) wiped out the leading families, and new blood from central Asia was no (112) recruited for the higher governmental posts. Finally, the Mughal Empire was an alien regime. It continued to be so (113) Akbar's policy of conciliation was abandoned and it wore itself out trying to maintain its power (ll4) the ceaseless opposition, only now and them overt but always present, of the (115) citizens.
- drained
- gone
- sucked
- released
- went
Correct

Incorrect

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