Junior Engineer Mechanical Practice Paper 5 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Mechanical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
(Q.Nos. 1-4) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input Line of words and numbers arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)
Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the Following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Which step number is the following output?
9227 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feetbest ink
- Step V
- Step Vl
- Step lV
- Step lll
- There is no such step
Correct

Incorrect
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?
- 14
- 92
- feet
- best
- why
Correct

68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V.

Incorrect

68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V.
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
How many elements (words or numbers) are there between'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output?
- One
- Three
- Four
- Five
- Seven
Correct

(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.

Incorrect

(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step?
- Eight from left
- Fifth from right
- Sixth from the left
- Fifth from the left
- Seventh from the left
Correct

51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.

Incorrect

51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
(Q.Nos. 5-11) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.
B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B.
D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H's .
Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother' Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E

What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?
- Immediate left
- Third to the right
- Third to the left
- Second to the right
- Fourth to the left
Correct

A's mother-in-law is B and A is second to the right of B.

Incorrect

A's mother-in-law is B and A is second to the right of B.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
Who among the following is D's daughter?
- B
- C
- E
- G
- H
Correct

D's daughter is E,

Incorrect

D's daughter is E,
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
- lmmediate right
- Third to the right
- Third to the left
- Second to the left
- Fourth to the left
Correct

A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.

Incorrect

A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
How many people sit between G and her uncle?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- More then four
Correct

G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anti-clockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.

Incorrect

G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anti-clockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- F
- C
- E
- H
- G
Correct

Except C all others are women

Incorrect

Except C all others are women
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
- C is the cousin of E
- H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
- No female is an immediate neighbor of C
- H sits third to left of her daughter
- B is the mother of H
Correct

B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.

Incorrect

B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Who sits to the immediate left of C?
- F's Grandmother
- G's Son
- D's Mother-in-law
- A
- G
Correct

F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.

Incorrect

F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
(Q. Nos. 12-18) In each group of questions below are two/three Statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements
Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions l. No question is a test. (7)
II. Some tests are definitely not exams. (3)
Hence, only conclusion II follows from the given statements.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Statements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn- diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers (7)
II. No heat is force. (3)
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Statements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

Conclusions. I No energy is heat. (3)
ll. Some forces being heat is a possibility. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Statements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)

II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)

II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Statements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)

II. All notes are plastic. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)

II. All notes are plastic. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Statements
Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7)

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7)
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Statements
All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions
I. All vacancies are occupation.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)

Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)

Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following could possibly be C's score?
- 70
- 94
- 86
- 61
- 81
Correct

Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81

Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.

Incorrect

Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81

Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
- D's score was definitely less than 60
- F scored the maximum marks
- Only two people scored more than C
- There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
- None of the above is true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score?
- 84
- 60
- 89
- 78
- 81
Correct

B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89

Incorrect

B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Which of the following is true regarding A?
- The person from UCO Bank faces A
- The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
- A faces the person who sits second io right of R
- A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
- A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
Correct

The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.

Incorrect

The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?
- The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
- P
- Q
- The person from Syndicate bank
- S
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
- D and the person from PNB
- The person from lndian Bank and UCO Bank
- The person from Dena Bank and P
- The person from Syndicate Bank and D
- C, O
Correct

The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.

Incorrect

The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
- The person from lndian Bank
- P
- R
- The person from Syndicate Bank
- The person from Canara Bank
Correct

The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,

Incorrect

The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who among the following is D related to, following the same pattern?
- Syndicate Bank
- Canara Bank
- Bank of Maharashtra
- Indian Bank
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
Correct

D is related to Indian Bank.

Incorrect

D is related to Indian Bank.
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- Canara Bank
- R
- Syndicate Bank
- Q
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
Correct

Except Q, all are on the ends of rows

Incorrect

Except Q, all are on the ends of rows
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following is from Syndicate Bank?
- C
- R
- P
- D
- A
Correct

P is from Syndicate Bank.

Incorrect

P is from Syndicate Bank.
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
C is from which of the following banks?
- Dena Bank
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
- UCO Bank
- Syndicate Bank
- Canara Bank
Correct

C is from Canara Bank.

Incorrect

C is from Canara Bank.
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six store building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the top most floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live, P lives on an even numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the top most floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R's floor.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From statement I,II and III people floor P-6, T-5, R-4, S-3, Q-2, V-.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor,

Incorrect

From statement I,II and III people floor P-6, T-5, R-4, S-3, Q-2, V-.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor,
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is 'ANSWER' the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point D is to the South of point C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of point F.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
How is'one'coded in the code language?
I. 'one of its kind'is coded as 'zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as 'ga to ru ko'
II. 'its point for origin' is coded as 'ba le fe mi' and 'make a point clear' is coded as 'yu si mi de'
III. 'make money and cash'is coded as 'to mi ru hy' and 'money of various kind'is coded as'qu ko zo hy'
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From statement I, II and III
kind ---> Ko, Point ---> mi, money ---> hy,
of----> zo, and ---> ru, cash ---> to, its ---> fe
of its kind ---> zo fe ko
Hence, one ---> pi

Incorrect

From statement I, II and III
kind ---> Ko, Point ---> mi, money ---> hy,
of----> zo, and ---> ru, cash ---> to, its ---> fe
of its kind ---> zo fe ko
Hence, one ---> pi
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the center?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the center. C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbor of A. C sits to immediate right of D'
III. D is an immediate neighbor of both A and C' B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).
- Chemical fertilizers harm the crop
- A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different.
- Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
- All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (Chemical as-well-as organic) in their farms.
- Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Correct

A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).

Incorrect

A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
- Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
- Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a super market set-up.
- There is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores.
- Super markets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones
Correct

The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'

Incorrect

The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
(Q. Nos. 37-40) These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E and F as given below.
A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the super markets.
B. As the super markets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
C. Super markets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much Lower as compared to the super markets.
F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D, E and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
- Only A
- Only B
- Both B and C
- Both D and E
- Only F
Correct

The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets.

Incorrect

The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets'
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
- Only A
- Only C
- Only E
- Only F
- Only B and C
Correct

Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.

Incorrect

Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
Which of the statements A, B,C,D and E mentioned above represents a. reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands?
- Only A
- Only B
- Only D
- Both A and D
- Both C and E
Correct

Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.

Incorrect

Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F mentioned above would Prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct?
- Only A
- Only C
- Only E
- Only F
- Only B and E
Correct

Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .

Incorrect

Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series /sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series / sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
The sports ministry approved the names of the athletes recommended by Kapil Dev-led panel for Arjuna Award 2014. Who among the following is NOT included in the list?
- Renubala Chanu (Weightlifting)
- Heena Sidhu (Shooting)
- Anirban Lahiri (Golf)
- Ravichandran Ashwin (cricket)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
Which of the following is the minimum price that sugarcane farmers are legally guaranteed by the govt?
- MEP
- MSP
- FRP
- MRP
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The sports ministry approved the names of the athletes recommended by Kapil Dev-led panel for Sports Awards 2014.
Who among the following is NOT included in the list?
- Mamta Pujari (Kabaddi) – Arjuna Award
- Mahabir Prasad (Wrestling) – Dronacharya Award
- Gurcharan Singh Gogi (Judo - Lifetime) – Dronacharya Award
- Gurumail singh (Hocky) - Dhyan chand Award
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The RBI in its annual Report for fy2013 - 14 , pointed out that about 36 per cent of the overall 4.1 per cent bad assets in system have been created by six sectors of the economy which have only 30 per cent of the credit share. Which of the following is NOT among these six sectors?
- Mining
- Automobiles
- Chemicals
- Textiles
- Infrastructure
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
with which of the following e-commerce firms for providing marketing platform to handloom weavers in the country?
- Snapdeal
- Amazon
- ebay
- Flipkart
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
Noted actor chemancherry Narayanan Nair passed away recently. He was associated with ________ cinema.
- Malayalam
- Kannada
- Telugu
- Tamil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
156. The United Nations Human Rights Chief has accused ISIS militants in Iraq of waging a campaign of ethnic and religious cleansing. Who among the following is UNHRC chief at present?
- Silvia Cartwright
- Navi Pillay
- Louise Arbour
- Asma Jahangir
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
In its biggest-ever crackdown on illicit money pooling scheme (estimated at nearly Rs 50,000 cr), regulator Sebi ordered immediate closure of unauthorised collective investment schemes run by which of the following firms and refund of investors’ money within three months?
- Saradha Group
- KWIL
- Wasankar Wealth Management
- PACL Ltd
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
Name the Thailand’s army chief, who seized power in a military coup three months ago and became the country’s prime minister recently?
- Suchinda Kraprayoon
- Prayuth Chan-ocha
- Anupong Paochinda
- Suthep Thaugsuban
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court cancelled allocation of all the coal blocks since ________ observing that the allocation done by screening committee was “not fair and transparent”.
- 2011
- 1999
- 1997
- 1993
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
India and which of the following countries conducted their maiden aerial exercise, Avia Indra-2014, to boost cooperation between their air forces recently?
- Russia
- Japan
- US
- Israel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
What is the expanded form of CACP? It is a statutory body that advises the govt on the pricing policy for major farm
produce?
- Commission for Agricultural Crops and Prices
- Commission for Agricultural Crops and Production
- Commission for Agricultural Costs and Production
- Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
The sports ministry approved the name of who among the following for the highest sports award in the country, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, for 2014?
- Vikas Gowda
- Mithali Raj
- Parupalli Kashyap
- Deepika Kumari
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued draft guidelines for the implementation of Bharat Bill Payment System (BPPS).The BPPS system is based on a report submitted by the GIRO (Govt Internal Revenue Order) Advisory Group set up under the chairmanship of
- Umesh Bellur
- Shashi Kant Sharma
- CB Bhave
- UK Sinha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
IDBI Bank has revealed that the bank is looking to raise Rs 5,000 cr by paring down the govt of India stake in it from 76.5 per cent to 58 per cent or 51 per cent. Who among the following is the chairman and managing director (CMD) of IDBI bank?
- VR Iyer
- MS Raghavan
- TM Bhasin
- JP Dua
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
A consortium of banks which has lent money to the beleaguered Kingfisher Airlines, has declared the airline a wilful defaulter. The country’s top loan defaulter owes a staggering ________ to banks.
- Rs 5,000 cr
- Rs 6,000 cr
- Rs 7,000 cr
- Rs 9,000 cr
- 5) None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
The Govt proposed to set up a telecom finance Corporation (TFC) to boost the telecom sector. Which of the following is NOT correct in this regard?
- The TFC will be set in the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17).
- It will be registered as a non-banking and non-deposit infrastructure finance company.
- The time frame to set up proposed TFC is up to Mar 31, 2017.
- The main sources of funds for TFC shall be through issue of taxable and tax-free bonds.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
Insurance sale and service through a common service centre (CSC) was launched by TS Vijayan, chairman of IRDA recently. The CSCs were set-up under ________ scheme.
- MGNREGA
- Digital India
- National e-Governance
- Bharat Nirmaan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has imposed a combined penalty of more than Rs 2,500 cr on 14 companies
related to which of the following sectors for unfair business practices recently?
- Textiles
- E-commerce
- Automobiles
- Steel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The Govt has finalised Governors for some states recently. Which of the following pairs is NOT correct in this regard?
- Rajasthan – Kalyan Singh
- Karnataka – Vajubhai Vala
- Goa – Mridula Sinha
- Maharashtra – C Vidyasagar Rao
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Sheila Dikshit resigned as Governor of which of the following states recently?
- Maharashtra
- Karnataka
- Tamil Nadu
- Kerala
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
The retirement fund body EPFO’s trustees decided to retain interest payment on provident fund deposits for 2014-15 at ________ recently.
- 8 per cent
- 8.50 per cent
- 8.75 per cent
- 9 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has announced the ‘Dadabhai Naoroji Awards’ which will be given annually to individuals promoting partnership between India and that country in domains like commerce, education and culture?
- US
- Germany
- Japan
- Britain
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
The govt notified increase in foreign direct investment (FDI) limit to ________ through approval route in the defence sector.
- 26 per cent
- 49 per cent
- 74 per cent
- 100 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
The govt has launched a new domain which will be in Devanagari script and will cover several Indian languages including Hindi. Identify the new domain.
- Bharat
- IN
- NIC
- India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
The govt notified the liberalised foreign direct investment (FDI) norms for the Railways, permitting FDI through automatic route in several areas, including high speed trains up to
- 26 per cent
- 49 per cent
- 74 per cent
- 100 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court in its recent verdict said that Prime Minister and Chief Ministers should desist from appointing who among the following as ministers in their cabinet?
- Kin of PM and CMs
- Illiterates
- People of foreign origin
- People with criminal antecedents
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
Prime Minister Narendra Modi set up a committee to identify “obsolete” laws which hamper governance. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the new committee?
- On the basis of committee’s recommendations a bill will be introduced in Parliament in the winter session.
- The committee will examine “Acts and Rules which may have become obsolete within the last 10 to 15 years”.
- The Committee will be chaired by R Ramanujam and VK Bhasin will be its other member.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
The name of Ajay Jayaram is associated with which of the following games?
- Tennis
- Table tennis
- Badminton
- Billiards
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
The reserve bank of india (RBI) eased norms to refinance ECBs recently. What does ECB stand for?
- External Commercial Borrowing
- External Contractual Borrowing
- Economic Commercial Borrowing
- External Commercial Bargaining
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries inaugurated its first environment friendly industrial zone Achchuveli Industrial Zone
recently?
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
- Nepal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
We often come across a term dipp in connection with foreign direct investment. What is the full form of DIPP?
- Department of Industrial Priority and Promotion
- Department of Infrastructure Policy and Promotion
- Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
- Department of Infrastructural Priority and Promotion
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
In a recent conversation with ADB President, PM Narendra Modi asked the Bank to give priority to regional connectivity projects which will help the entire region. Who among the following is the present President of ADB?
- Takehiko Nakao
- Masaaki Shirakawa
- Roberto Azevedo
- Haruhiko Kuroda
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
The Supreme Court has ordered which of the following real estate majors to deposit Rs 630 cr fine slapped on it by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) for allegedly resorting to unfair business practices?
- Omaxe
- Unitech
- Parsvnath
- DLF
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
Vinod Kumar Duggal resigned as Governor of which of the following states recently?
- Mizoram
- Manipur
- Tripura
- Assam
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched launches the ambitious financial inclusion scheme ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ on 28 Aug. Which of the following is NOT a key feature of the scheme?
- Record 1.5 cr bank accounts were opened via almost 80,000 camps in rural and urban areas on the first day.
- At least 7.5 crore households will get basic bank accounts by Jan 25, 2015.
- Upon satisfactory operation of the account for six months, the account holder will get a Rs 5000 overdraft facility.
- All those who open accounts by Jan will get Rs 30,000 life insurance over and above the Rs 100,000 accident insurance
- Account holder will have to maintain a minimum balance of Rs . 200 in their in their account
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Which of the following leading electronic manufacturers has bagged the title sponsorship for Indian cricket team for 2014-15 for an approximate fee of Rs 18 cr recently?
- Micromax
- Samsung
- Karbonn
- Lava
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
Which of the following is the fourth and final Grand Slam tennis tournament played each year?
- Wimbledon
- French Open
- Australian Open
- US Open
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
Which of the following states has made it mandatory to wear helmet for women recently? The rule will be applicable to all except Sikh women.
- Punjab
- Haryana
- Delhi
- Karnataka
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the Belgian Grand Prix formula one championship recently?
- Fernando Alonso
- Daniel Ricciardo
- Lewis Hamilton
- Nico Rosberg
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
The book titled ‘Not Just an Accountant’ has been authored by who among the following?
- Gopal Subramaniam
- Ranjit Sinha
- Vinod Rai
- Shashi Kant Sharma
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
National Sports Day in India is celebrated on the birthday of hockey legend Dhyan Chand which falls on
- 22 Aug
- 25 Aud
- 27 Aug
- 29 Aug
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
The Committee set up by the Supreme Court to conduct a probe against ICC President N Srinivasan and 12 prominent
players in the IPL betting and spot-fixing scandal filed its report recently. The committee was named
- Justice Mukul Mudgal Committee
- Justice RM Lodha Committee
- Justice P Sathasivam Committee
- Justice Altamas Kabir Committee
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
The Defence Ministry scrapped Rs 6000 cr - scam - tainted tender for purchase of light utility helicopters from which of the following firms recently?
- Saab
- Agusta Westland
- BAE Systems
- Dassault Aviation
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
The National Aeronautics and space administration (NASA) has announced the launch its $7-bn Space Launch System (SLS), the heavy-lift, exploration class rocket under development, by Nov 2018 to
- Moon
- Venus
- Jupiter
- Mars
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The National Aeronautics and space administration (NASA) has announced the launch its $7-bn Space Launch System (SLS), the heavy-lift, exploration class rocket under development, by Nov 2018 to
- Moon
- Venus
- Jupiter
- Mars
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
murali karthikkeyan was in news for his performance in which of the following sports recently?
- Squash
- Badminton
- Chess
- Table tennis
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been appointed the ambassador of Interpol’s ‘Turn Back Crime’ campaign recently? He has become the first Indian actor to be roped in by the Interpol.
- Amitabh Bachchan
- Shah Rukh Khan
- Salman Khan
- Hrithik Roshan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Tavurvur, an active volcano which erupted recently, is located in which of the following countries?
- Indonesia
- Italy
- Japan
- Papua New Guinea
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
A Delhi court has fixed Dec 9 for hearing the complaint case against Congress President Sonia Gandhi, Rahul Gandhi and others. The issue is related to which of the following dailies published by Associated Journals Limited?
- Delhi Herald
- National Herald
- The Statesman
- Deccan Herald
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
Gears used in Parallel shafts are
- Worm and Worm wheel
- Bevel
- Spur
- (4)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
The dielectric fluid is not used in EDM is
- Kerosene
- Distilled water
- Paraffin
- Silicon oil
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
The electrolyte in ECM is the aqueous solution of
- Nacl
- KNO3
- NaNo2
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
Which process follows the heat treatment
- Grinding
- Lapping
- Shapping
- Hobbing
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
The process of extrusion is like
- a lubricant pouring through the mouth of container
- a tooth paste coming out of the tube
- Particles thrown out of a nozzle under air pressure
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
A poppet value is produced by
- Rolling
- Swaging
- Stretching
- Combined forging and extruction
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
The method adopted for automation and mass production in welding is
- Resistance Arc welding
- Gas welding
- Brazing
- Flash welding
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
Monel metal is used as a filler rod when welding
- Stain less steel
- Low Carbon steel
- Carbon steel
- Cast Iron
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
For welding non-ferrous metals the preferable electric supply is
- DC
- AC (low frequency)
- AC (high frequency)
- Either AC or DC
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
Silica is the second most important constitment of moulding sand which provides
- Binding Strength
- Refractoriness
- Porosity
- Chemical resistance
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Nurselt number is the function of
- Reynolds number and dynamic viscosity
- Dynamic viscosity and Prandtl number
- Prandtl number and Reynolds' number
- Reynolds' number and thickness of boundary Layer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
The shape factor for radiation heat transfer of a long cylinder of radius 'r,' enclosed by another concentric long cylinder of radius ' $r_{2}$ ' is
- 0.25
- 0.5
- 0.75
- 1.0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
To measure small pressure in pipe line, which instrument is used
- Venturimeter
- Manometer
- Piezometer
- Orificemeter
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
When a fluid continuously flows round a curved path about a fixed axis, it is known as
- Rotational flow
- Vortex flow
- Unsteady flow
- Radial flow
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
Travel chart helps to decide
- Production Schedule
- material handling
- Inventory Control
- Product Cost
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
The design of a product must consider
- Manufacturer and Salesman
- Consumer and manufacturer
- Consumer, manufacturer and Salesman
- Only Consumer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
In Vapour absorption refrigeration system, the coefficient of performance is given by
- $\frac{hb}{he}$
- $\frac{hb-he}{he}$
- $\frac{hb-he}{he}$
- $\frac{hb-he}{he-\omega}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
In a refrigerant system, the refrigerant gain heat at
- Compressor
- Condenser
- Expansion Value
- Evaporator
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
Force of propulsion of a turbo jet becomes zero when populsion efficiency is
- Zero
- 100%
- 50%
- 25%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Work ratio of Gas turbine plant is
- $\frac{W_{T}}{W_{T}+W_{C}}$
- $\frac{W_{T}-W_{C}}{W_{T}+W_{C}}$
- $\frac{W_{T}-W_{C}}{W_{T}}$
- $\frac{W_{T}+W_{T}}{W_{C}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
The condenser in ignition circuit of an S.I engine
- increases battery voltage
- charges the battery
- avoids arcing at contact breaker
- decreases current from the battery
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
Cetane number of diesel fuel is increased by addition of 0.5% by weight of
- Ethyl thionitrate
- tetraethyl lead
- Iso octane
- n-heptane
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
Entrophy of a working Sustance at 0 °C is regarded as
- -1
- 0
- 1
- 10
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
The index of adiabatic expansion is
- Cp / Cv
- Cp x Cv
- Cp + Cv
- Cp – Cv
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
Orsat gas analyzer determines Volumetric composition of fuel gases in respect of
- $O_{2}$ and $N_{2}$
- $O_{2}$ 2 and $N_{2}$
- $CO_{2}$ , Co and $N_{2}$
- $N_{2},O_{2}$ and Co
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
Liquid fuels burn more efficiently than solid fuel because
- Liquid fuel can be atomize easily
- Liquid fuels do not contain ashes
- Liquid fuels have high is ignition point
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
The enthalpy of a system is
- I = U + PV
- I = U + Pdv
- 1 = U + Vdp
- I = Au + Pv
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
In a Polytropic expansion, ratio of work to heat transfer
- $\frac{n-1}{r-1}$
- $\frac{i_{l}}{r-1}$
- $\frac{n}{r}$
- $\frac{r-1}{r-n}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
The wire of helical springs are designed for
- axial loading
- Bending loads
- Torsional loads
- Torsional and bending loads
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
The phexomenon of elongation and contraction of the belt is
- Fatigue
- Slip
- Creap
- inelasticity
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
In a Cam follower system pitch point is the point on pitch curve at which pressure angle is
- maximum
- minimum
- zero
- π/2
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
Which of the following is a dead weight governor
- Porter governor
- Hartness governor
- Watt governor
- Pickering governor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
A beam of length ‘1’, fixed at both ends carries uniformly distributed load of 'W' per unit length. If 'EI' is the flexural rigidity of the beam, then maximum deflection in the beam is
- $\frac{WL_{4}}{192EI}$
- $\frac{wl^{4}}{384EI}$
- $\frac{wl^{4}}{192EI}$
- $\frac{wl^{4}}{296EI}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
The length between the supports for charpy impact test specimen is
- 60mm
- 50mm
- 40mm
- 30mm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
White metal used for bearing is an alloy of
- Sn, Cu, Sb
- Cu and Pb
- Cu, Zn, Ni
- Cu and Sn
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
Hardness is a measure of
- Ultimate stress
- Yield strength
- Toughness
- Fatigue Strength
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
For temperature measurement in thermistors, material used is
- Platinum
- oxide of platinun
- tungsten
- oxide of cobalt
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
Meter accuracy is determined by
- Full Scale deflection
- Half Scale deflection
- Quarter Scale deflection
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
One horse power is equal to
- 1.333 kw
- 1.000 kw
- 0.8000 kw
- 0.7457 kw
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
Bearing suitable for fluctuating load is
- Sleeve bearing
- Ball bearing
- Roller bearing
- Needle-roller bearing
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
A cylinder contains 3 kg of oxygen at 5 bar pressure and temperature of 27°c, Determine the Volume of the Cylinder in m3. Consider R = 0.26bkj/kgk
- 0.468
- 0.589
- 0.670
- (4) 0.740
Correct

Mass m = 3 kg

pressure p = 5 bar = $5\times 10^{5}$ N/ $m^{2}$ = 500 Kn/ $m^{2}$

By gas equation :

P.V = mRT

R = Gas Constant

= 0.26 Kj/kgk

Volume (v) = $\frac{m.R.T}{p}$

= $\frac{3\times 0.26\times 300}{500}=0.468m^{3}$

Volume of the cylinder = $0.468m^{3}$

Incorrect

Mass m = 3 kg

pressure p = 5 bar = $5\times 10^{5}$ N/ $m^{2}$ = 500 Kn/ $m^{2}$

By gas equation :

P.V = mRT

R = Gas Constant

= 0.26 Kj/kgk

Volume (v) = $\frac{m.R.T}{p}$

= $\frac{3\times 0.26\times 300}{500}=0.468m^{3}$

Volume of the cylinder = $0.468m^{3}$
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
A gas is compressed hyperbolically from a pressure and volume of 100 kn/m2 and 0.056m3 respy to a volume of 0.007m3 and pressure of 800 kn/m2
- -11.6449
- 11.6449
- 13.6449
- -13.6449
Correct

For hyperbolic compression , p.v = constant

Initial pressure = $P_{1}$ = 100 kn/ $m^{2}$

Initial Volume = $V_{1}$ = 0.056 $m^{3}$

Final pressure = 800 kn/ $m^{2}$

Work done is given by

w = $P_{1}V_{1}ln\left(\frac{V_{1}}{V_{1}}\right)$

= $100\times 0.056\times ln\left(\frac{0.007}{0.056}\right)\cdot\frac{Kn}{m_{2}}\times m ^{3}$

W = -11.6449 Kj

The negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.

Incorrect

For hyperbolic compression , p.v = constant

Initial pressure = $P_{1}$ = 100 kn/ $m^{2}$

Initial Volume = $V_{1}$ = 0.056 $m^{3}$

Final pressure = 800 kn/ $m^{2}$

Work done is given by

w = $P_{1}V_{1}ln\left(\frac{V_{1}}{V_{1}}\right)$

= $100\times 0.056\times ln\left(\frac{0.007}{0.056}\right)\cdot\frac{Kn}{m_{2}}\times m ^{3}$

W = -11.6449 Kj

The negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
Find the efficiency of the engine whose work done is 2.5 KJ/sec and the heat supplied is 300 KJ/min.
- 70%
- 60%
- 50%
- 55%
Correct

Work done W = 2.5KJ/sec

Heat Supplied $Q_{s}=\frac{300}{60}$ Kj/sec

Efficiency of the engine begin = $\frac{Work\: done}{Heat\: Supplied}=\frac{W}{Q_{s}}=\frac{2.5}{5}$ = 0.5 = 50%

Incorrect

Work done W = 2.5KJ/sec

Heat Supplied $Q_{s}=\frac{300}{60}$ Kj/sec

Efficiency of the engine begin = $\frac{Work\: done}{Heat\: Supplied}=\frac{W}{Q_{s}}=\frac{2.5}{5}$ = 0.5 = 50%
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
Calculate the power of the motor in a reversible cannot engine whose heat rejected to the buipling is 200 MJ/hr and work done is 17.064846 MJ/hr.
- 5740 watts
- 4740 W
- 3740 W
- 6740 W
Correct

Power = $\frac{Work\: done}{Sec}$

By data work done = 17.064846mj / hr

W = 17064.846kj/hr

Power = $\frac{17064.846}{3600}$ kj/sec

= 4.74 kw = 4740 watts

p = 4740 watts

Incorrect

Power = $\frac{Work\: done}{Sec}$

By data work done = 17.064846mj / hr

W = 17064.846kj/hr

Power = $\frac{17064.846}{3600}$ kj/sec

= 4.74 kw = 4740 watts

p = 4740 watts
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
In isothermal Compression, it is possible to compress 15m3 of air per minute at 105 N/m2 and 297 K to 7 x 10 5N/m2 in a single stage single acting compressor. Calculate the work input.
- 48.64
- 47.64
- 46.64
- 49.64
Correct

$V_{1}=15\frac{m^{3}}{min}=\frac{15}{60}m^{3}/sec$

$P_{1}=10^{5}N/m^{2}=100kn/m^{2}$

$P_{2}=7\times 10^{5}N/m^{2}=700KN/m^{2}$

Work input for isothermal compression

W = $P_{1}V_{1}\: ln\left(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\right)=100\times \frac{15}{60}\times ln\left(\frac{700}{100}\right)$

W = 48.647kj/sec

Incorrect

$V_{1}=15\frac{m^{3}}{min}=\frac{15}{60}m^{3}/sec$

$P_{1}=10^{5}N/m^{2}=100kn/m^{2}$

$P_{2}=7\times 10^{5}N/m^{2}=700KN/m^{2}$

Work input for isothermal compression

W = $P_{1}V_{1}\: ln\left(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}}\right)=100\times \frac{15}{60}\times ln\left(\frac{700}{100}\right)$

W = 48.647kj/sec
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
A brass rod of 20 mm diameter and 1.5m long is subjected to an axial pull of 4KN. Find the stress, and strain of the bar. Take
E= $1\times 10^{5}\: N/mm^{2}$
- $12.73M/mm^{2}\: ,1.27\times 10^{-4}$
- $18.25M/mm^{2}\: ,1.10\times 10^{-4}$
- $9.50M/mm^{2}\: ,1.35\times 10^{-4}$
- None of these
Correct

By Hookes law

$\frac{Stress}{Strain}$

Modulus of elasticity = E

Now ,

P = 4KN = 4000 N

d = 20 mm

l = 1.5 m = 1500mm

E = $1\times 10^{5}N/mm^{2}$

A = $\frac{\pi}{4}d^{2}=\frac{\pi}{4}\times(20)^{2}=314.16\: mm^{2}$

(1) Stress = $\frac{Force}{Area}=12.73\: N/mm^{2}$

Stress = 12.73 N/ $mm^{2}$

(2) Strain = $\frac{Stress}{E}=\frac{12.73}{1\times 10^{5}}$ = 0.0001273

Incorrect

By Hookes law

$\frac{Stress}{Strain}$

Modulus of elasticity = E

Now ,

P = 4KN = 4000 N

d = 20 mm

l = 1.5 m = 1500mm

E = $1\times 10^{5}N/mm^{2}$

A = $\frac{\pi}{4}d^{2}=\frac{\pi}{4}\times(20)^{2}=314.16\: mm^{2}$

(1) Stress = $\frac{Force}{Area}=12.73\: N/mm^{2}$

Stress = 12.73 N/ $mm^{2}$

(2) Strain = $\frac{Stress}{E}=\frac{12.73}{1\times 10^{5}}$ = 0.0001273
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
A hollow C.I. column 250 mm diameter subjected to an axial load. If the ultimate crushing stress for the material is 480 N/rnm2. Calculate the working stress taking factor of safety as 3.
- 150N/mm2
- 160N/mm2
- 180 N/mm2
- None
Correct

Working stress = $\frac{Ultimate\: stress}{Factor\: of\: safety}=\frac{480}{3}=160N/mm^{2}$

W . S = $160N/mm^{2}$

Incorrect

Working stress = $\frac{Ultimate\: stress}{Factor\: of\: safety}=\frac{480}{3}=160N/mm^{2}$

W . S = $160N/mm^{2}$
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
A boiler 2.8m diameter is subjected to a stain pressure of 0.68 N/mm2. Find the hoop stress if the thickness of boiler plate is 10mm.
- 95.2
- 90.2
- 80.2
- 85.2
Correct

p = 0.68N/ $mm^{2}$ , d = 2.8m , t = 10mm

Hoop stress . ft = $\frac{pd}{2t}$

= $\frac{0.68\times 2.8\times 1000}{2\times 10}=95.2N/mm^{2}$

= ft = 95.2 N/ $mm^{2}$

Incorrect

p = 0.68N/ $mm^{2}$ , d = 2.8m , t = 10mm

Hoop stress . ft = $\frac{pd}{2t}$

= $\frac{0.68\times 2.8\times 1000}{2\times 10}=95.2N/mm^{2}$

= ft = 95.2 N/ $mm^{2}$
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
Calculate the weight of the round steel bar 250 mm dia and 15m long when it is simply supported at the ends. Steel weight 7.5499 x 10-5 N/mm2
- 44490 N
- 55540 N
- 55590 N
- 44450
Correct

Weight of the whole bar

W = Volume $\times$ Specific weight

Volume = $A\times L$

= $\frac{\pi}{4}\times d^{2}\times L$

= $\frac{\pi}{4}\times (250)^{2}\times 15000$

= $62500\times 3750\times \pi$

= 234375000 $\pi$

W = $234375000\pi\times 7.5499\times 10^{-5}$

W =55590 . 7

Incorrect

Weight of the whole bar

W = Volume $\times$ Specific weight

Volume = $A\times L$

= $\frac{\pi}{4}\times d^{2}\times L$

= $\frac{\pi}{4}\times (250)^{2}\times 15000$

= $62500\times 3750\times \pi$

= 234375000 $\pi$

W = $234375000\pi\times 7.5499\times 10^{-5}$

W =55590 . 7
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
A solid shaft has to transmit 10kw at 210 rpm. Calculate the Torque
- 454.54
- 454
- 480
- 474
Correct

$p=\frac{2\piNT}{60}$

= 10 ,000 = $p=\frac{2\pi\times 210\times T}{60}$

T = $\frac{10,000\times 60}{2\pi \times 210}=\frac{60000}{42\pi}$ = 454 . 54

Incorrect

$p=\frac{2\piNT}{60}$

= 10 ,000 = $p=\frac{2\pi\times 210\times T}{60}$

T = $\frac{10,000\times 60}{2\pi \times 210}=\frac{60000}{42\pi}$ = 454 . 54
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Which one is not the correct unit of thermal conductivity?
- J/m. hr.k
- W/m2k
- Cal/cm.hr °C
- H.P/mk
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
Choose the material whose thermal conductivity increases with increasing temperature
- Cu
- Au
- Al
- Fe
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
Cork is a bad thermal conductor because
- it is porous
- it is soft and flexible
- its atoms are of smaller size
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
Thermal conductivity through walls of a cylinder of inner and outer radius r, and r2 is inversely proportional to
- $r_{2}-r_{1}$
- $r_{1}-r_{2}$
- $l(r_{2}/r_{1})$
- $\frac{1}{\left(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\right)}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
Non dimensional form of the convective heat transfer coefficient is
- Prandtl Number
- Reynold's Number
- Nusselt Number
- Grashof Number
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
A thermally transparent body is characterized by
- Absorpterity =1
- Reflectivity = 1
- Transmissibility = 1,
- Abrsoptevity = reflectivity = 0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
A long fin extends from external surface of a cylinder through which hot fluid flows, the excess temperature at the tip of the fin would be
- Zero
- Ambient temperature
- higher than ambient temperature
- Lower than ambient temperature
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
Two ends of a rod are maintained at same temperature. The temperature gradient at the centre of the rod is
- Constant
- Zero
- a linear function
- Maximum
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
The units of kinematic viscosity are
- Ns/M2
- Kg.s/M2
- KgmVs
- M2/sec
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
The density of the fluid varies with
- Change of temperature
- Change of pressure
- Change of temperature and pressure
- Neither change of temperature nor change of pressure
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
The force of attraction between molecules of a fluid is
- Cohesion
- Adhesion
- Viscosity
- Friction
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
A metal piece having density equal to the density of a fluid is placed to the liquid. The metal piece will
- Sink to the bottom
- Float on the surface
- Will be partly immersed
- Will be wholly immersed
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
The law of conservation of energy for an inviscid, in compressible and steady flow is
- Bernoullis Theorem.
- Kutlers theorem
- Archemedes Principle
- Pascals Law
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
Discontenous chip in ductile materials is prodeceed because of
- Sharp cutting edge
- large rake angle
- low friction
- insufficient cooling
Correct

Incorrect
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
A crater is a pit formed on
- flank of tool
- Face of tool
- Surface of work piece
- neither tool nor the w piece
Correct

Incorrect
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
A tool may fail suddenly due to
- Crater wear
- Flank wear
- Spalling
- 1’ and '2'
Correct

Incorrect
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
The cutting velocity 'V’ (m/min) and tool life T (min) related as
- VT= Constant
- VT2 = Constant V
- V/T = Constant T
- VP = Constant
Correct

Incorrect
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
Which component of refrigeration system controls the flow of refrigerant?
- Expansion valve
- Condensor
- Compressor
- Evaporator
Correct

Incorrect
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between highest temperature "T" and lowest temperature 'T2', index of its performance is
- $\frac{T_{1}}{T_{1}-T_{2}}$
- $\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}-T_{2}}$
- $\frac{T_{1}+T_{2}}{T_{1}-T_{2}}$
- $\frac{T_{1}-T_{2}}{T_{1}+T_{2}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
For Practical perposes, one ton of refrigeration means :
- 3.48kw
- 34.8 kw
- 348 kw
- None of there
Correct

Incorrect
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
In a rotary compressor the process of compression is not adiabatic because of
. In a rotary compressor the process of compression is not adiabatic because of
- high speed
- friction in blades
- low pressure
- high temperature
Correct

Incorrect
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
The regenerator in a gas turbine plant is a heat exchange of
- parallel flow type
- counter flow type
- mixed flow type
- bled type
Correct

Incorrect
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
The highest temperature in a gas turbine plant is restricted to
- 1200 °C
- 1000°C
- 800 °C
- 500 °C
Correct

Incorrect
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
The thermal efficiency of diesal engine is close to
- 28%
- 34%
- 40%
- 44%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
Engine working on otto cycle uses
- only liquid fuel
- only gaseous fuel
- liquid and gaseous fuel
- liquid and solid fuel
Correct

Incorrect
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
Theoretically, efficiency of a cannot cycle cannot exceed
- 35%
- 50%
- 65%
- 100%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Identify a water tube boiler
- lancashire boiler
- cochran boiler
- babcock and wilcox boiler
- locomotive boiler
Correct

Incorrect
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
Which one of the following contains largest percentage of moisture
- peat
- lignite
- anthracite
- bitermenous coal
Correct

Incorrect
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
Variation of pressure and volume at constant temperature are correlated through
- charles law
- boyles law
- gas law
- gay lussacs law
Correct

Incorrect
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
A sequence of operations which a gas undergoes in such a way that final state is same as original state make a
- resersible cycle
- irreversible cylce
- Thermodynamic cycle
- none of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The efficiency of a screw jack is in the range of
- 10-20%
- 20-40%
- 50-60%
- 60-80%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
A V-belt having 'B' section is generally used when the HP power to be transmitted is in the range of
- 3-25
- 25-40
- 40-50
- 50-75
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
The dynamometer most suitable for measuring brake horse power of an automobile engine is
- prony brake
- electrical generator type
- hydraulic
- rope brake type
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
In forced vibrations transmitted force is equal to the exciting force if ratio of — is equal to
- 2
- $\sqrt{2}$
- $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$
- 1
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
Rivets are generally made of a material which is
- hard
- brittle
- ductile
- malleable
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
Euler's buckling theory is applicable for
- short columns
- columns of medium length
- long columns
- short steets
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
The alloying elements in steel which increase toughness are
- Ni and Cr
- Ni and Si
- Ni and Mo
- Ni and Mg
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
Materials used in the manufacture of thermistor are
- oxides of iron and zinc
- (2) oxides of manganese and cobalt
- carbides of silicon and ger-manuese
- all the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
Sound wave in air are in the form of
- longitudinal wave
- shear wave
- transverse wave
- all the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
A helical spring with stiffness 'K’ is oscillating under a load 'W’, applied at its end. What is the frequency of oscillation
- $\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{KG}{W}}$
- $\frac{1}{2\pi}\sqrt{\frac{W}{KG}}$
- $\sqrt{\frac{KG}{W}}$
- $2\pi\sqrt{\frac{W}{KG}}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
0.5 kg of air at 180 °C expands adiabatically. During the expansion, the temperature is decreased to 20 °C, Work done during expansion is 53 k/m. Find Cu (Specific heat at constant Volume)
- 0.6625 kJ /kgk
- 0.5896 kJ /kgk
- 0.4569 kJ /kgk
- 0.7648 kJ /kgk
Correct

Mass of air m = 0.5 kg

Initial temperature $T_{1}$ = $180^{\circ}C$ = 180 + 273 = $453^{\circ}K$

Final Temperature = $T_{2}$ = $20^{\circ}C$ = 20 + 273 = $293^{\circ}K$

Work done W = 53 KNm

Adiabatic Work done

$\omega =m[C_{V}(T_{1}-T_{2})]$

53 = $0.5\times C_{V}(453-293)$

$C_{V}=\frac{53}{0.5\times 160}=\frac{53}{80}$ = 0.6625KJ/Kgk

Incorrect

Mass of air m = 0.5 kg

Initial temperature $T_{1}$ = $180^{\circ}C$ = 180 + 273 = $453^{\circ}K$

Final Temperature = $T_{2}$ = $20^{\circ}C$ = 20 + 273 = $293^{\circ}K$

Work done W = 53 KNm

Adiabatic Work done

$\omega =m[C_{V}(T_{1}-T_{2})]$

53 = $0.5\times C_{V}(453-293)$

$C_{V}=\frac{53}{0.5\times 160}=\frac{53}{80}$ = 0.6625KJ/Kgk
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
A gas expands according to the law PV1.3 = C. Find the polytrophic specific heat?
Take V= 1.4 for gas and Cv = 0.718 kJ /kgk
- 0.339 kJ /kgk
- 0.439 kJ /kgk
- 0.239 kJ /kgk
- 0.139kJ /kgk
Correct

$PV^{1.3}$ = C : n = 1 : 3

$\gamma$ = 1.4

$C_{V}$ = 0.718 Kj/kgk

Polymorphic specific heat

$C_{0}=C_{V}\left[\frac{8-n}{n-1}\right]$

= $0.718\times \left[\frac{1.4-1.3}{1.3-1}\right]$

= $0.718\times\frac{0.1}{0.3}=\frac{0.718}{3}$ = 0.239 kj/kgk

Incorrect

$PV^{1.3}$ = C : n = 1 : 3

$\gamma$ = 1.4

$C_{V}$ = 0.718 Kj/kgk

Polymorphic specific heat

$C_{0}=C_{V}\left[\frac{8-n}{n-1}\right]$

= $0.718\times \left[\frac{1.4-1.3}{1.3-1}\right]$

= $0.718\times\frac{0.1}{0.3}=\frac{0.718}{3}$ = 0.239 kj/kgk
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
Find the compression ratio if the pressure at the beginning and the end of compression are 103.5 kN/m2 and 827.5 kN/m2 respy. Take r= 1.4
- 4.4145
- 5.4145
- 6.4145
- 3.4145
Correct

$r=\frac{V_{1}}{V_{2}}=\left ( \frac{P_{2}}{P_{}}\right)^{\frac{1}{r}}$

Now , $P_{1}=103KN/m^{2}$

$P_{2}=827.5KN/m^{2}$ , r = 1.4

r = $\left ( \frac{827.5}{103.5}\right)^{\frac{1}{1.4}}$ = 4.4145

Incorrect

$r=\frac{V_{1}}{V_{2}}=\left ( \frac{P_{2}}{P_{}}\right)^{\frac{1}{r}}$

Now , $P_{1}=103KN/m^{2}$

$P_{2}=827.5KN/m^{2}$ , r = 1.4

r = $\left ( \frac{827.5}{103.5}\right)^{\frac{1}{1.4}}$ = 4.4145
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
Find the enthalphy of steam whose drejress fraction is 0.95 at pressure of 8 bar. Date from steam tables at 8 bar kJ
- 2665 $\frac{Kj}{Kg}$
- 2485 Kj/Kg
- 3645 Kj/Kg
- 1085 Kj/Kg
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
The inlet and outlet temperatures of cooling water in a condenser are 29.5 °C and 37.5 °C respy. If the pressure is 0.07346 bar. Find the condenser efficiency
- 85.77%
- 65.77%
- 76.77%
- 5877%
Correct

From steam table . For p = 0.07346 bar

Saturation temperature = $t_{s}$ = 39.92 $^{\circ}C$

Now $t_{1}$ = 29.5 C , $t_{2}$ = 37.5 $^{\circ}C$

Now conderses efficiency h = $\frac{t_{2}-t_{1}}{t_{s}-t_{1}}$

= $\frac{37.5-29.5}{39.9-29.5}=\frac{80}{104}$ = 0.767 = 76 .775%

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
A certain machine works on reversed cannot cycle. Whose temperature limits are —12 °C to 28 °C. Find the c.o.p. of machine as heat pump
- 8 . 5
- 7.5
- 6.5
- 9.5
Correct

Max Temp = $T_{1}=28^{\circ}C=28+273=301^{\circ}K$

Minimum Temp = $T_{2}$ = -12 = -12 + 273 = 260 $^{\circ}K$

C.P.P. of Heat pump

= $\frac{T_{1}}{T_{1}-T_{2}}=\frac{301}{301-261}=\frac{301}{140}=7.525$

Incorrect

Max Temp = $T_{1}=28^{\circ}C=28+273=301^{\circ}K$

Minimum Temp = $T_{2}$ = -12 = -12 + 273 = 260 $^{\circ}K$

C.P.P. of Heat pump

= $\frac{T_{1}}{T_{1}-T_{2}}=\frac{301}{301-261}=\frac{301}{140}=7.525$
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Calculate the stress that can be produced in a steel bar 40mm dia and 3m long subjected to a pull of 100 kn. Given E=200 kn/mm2
- 60 N/mm2
- 70 N/mm2
- 80 N/mm2
- 75 N/mm2
Correct

P = $\frac{F}{A}d=40\: mm$

F = 100 100 KN

A = $\frac{\pi}{4}d^{2}=\frac{\pi}{4}(40)^{2}$

$\frac{\pi \times 40\times 40}{4}=400\pi$

P = $\frac{100}{400\pi}=\frac{1}{4\pi}=\frac{1}{4\pi}$

= 0.07958 KN/ $mm^{2}$

Incorrect

P = $\frac{F}{A}d=40\: mm$

F = 100 100 KN

A = $\frac{\pi}{4}d^{2}=\frac{\pi}{4}(40)^{2}$

$\frac{\pi \times 40\times 40}{4}=400\pi$

P = $\frac{100}{400\pi}=\frac{1}{4\pi}=\frac{1}{4\pi}$

= 0.07958 KN/ $mm^{2}$
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
A rope drives a follower pulley of diameter 250mm at 60 r.p.m. The coefficient of friction between the pulley & rope is 0.32. Find the velocity at which the rope drive in?
- 0.785 m/sec
- 0.935 m/sec
- 0.475 m/sec
- 0.595 m/sec
Correct

$V=\frac{\pi DN}{60}m/sec$

D : 250 mm = 0.250 m

N = 60rpm

$V=\frac{\pi\times 0.20\times 60}{60}m/sec$

$\pi \times 0.250=0.785$

V = 0.785 m/ sec

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
Find the heat flowing in the system?
- 1132.55 w/m2
- 2345.54 w/m2
- 3454.54 w/m2
- 4325.54 w/m2
Correct

Heat flowing $H_{k}=\frac{T_{1}-T_{3}}{\frac{d_{1}}{k_{1}}+\frac{d_{2}}{k_{2}}}$

$T_{1}=400^{\circ}C=673^{\circ}K$

$T_{2}=96^{\circ}C=369^{\circ}K$

$d_{1}$ = Thickness = 20mm = $20\times 10^{-3}$

$d_{2}$ = Thickness = 2mm = $2\times 10^{-3}$

Thermal Conductivity $k_{1}$ = 76 W/mk

Thermal Conductivity $k_{2}$ = 380 W/mk

Substituting we get

$H_{k}=\frac{373-369}{\frac{20}{76}+\frac{2}{380}}$

= $\frac{304}{(0.263+0.0005)\times 10^{-3}}=\frac{304\times 10^{3}}{0.268}$ = 11.32.55 W/ $m^{2}$

Incorrect

Heat flowing $H_{k}=\frac{T_{1}-T_{3}}{\frac{d_{1}}{k_{1}}+\frac{d_{2}}{k_{2}}}$

$T_{1}=400^{\circ}C=673^{\circ}K$

$T_{2}=96^{\circ}C=369^{\circ}K$

$d_{1}$ = Thickness = 20mm = $20\times 10^{-3}$

$d_{2}$ = Thickness = 2mm = $2\times 10^{-3}$

Thermal Conductivity $k_{1}$ = 76 W/mk

Thermal Conductivity $k_{2}$ = 380 W/mk

Substituting we get

$H_{k}=\frac{373-369}{\frac{20}{76}+\frac{2}{380}}$

= $\frac{304}{(0.263+0.0005)\times 10^{-3}}=\frac{304\times 10^{3}}{0.268}$ = 11.32.55 W/ $m^{2}$
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
A hollow C.I. column 250mm dia with a wall thickness of 25mm is subjected to an axial load. If the ultimate crushing stress for the material is 360 N/mm2. Calculate the working stress assuming factor of safety as 2.
- 200 N/mm2
- 180 N/mm2
- 240 N/mm2
- N/mm2
Correct

Working Stress = $\frac{Ultimate\: stress}{Factor\: of\: Safty}$

Ultimate stress = $360NM/mm^{2}$

Factor of safety = 2

$\therefore$ Working Stress = $\frac{360}{2}=180N/mm^{2}$

Incorrect