Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 4 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Electrical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
(Q.Nos. 1-4) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input Line of words and numbers arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)
Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the Following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)

Which step number is the following output?
9227 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feetbest ink
- Step V
- Step Vl
- Step lV
- Step lll
- There is no such step
Correct

Incorrect
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?
- 14
- 92
- feet
- best
- why
Correct

68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V.

Incorrect

68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V.
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
How many elements (words or numbers) are there between'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output?
- One
- Three
- Four
- Five
- Seven
Correct

(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.

Incorrect

(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Which of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step?
- Eight from left
- Fifth from right
- Sixth from the left
- Fifth from the left
- Seventh from the left
Correct

51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.

Incorrect

51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
(Q.Nos. 5-11) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.
B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B.
D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H's .
Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother' Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E

What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?
- Immediate left
- Third to the right
- Third to the left
- Second to the right
- Fourth to the left
Correct

A's mother-in-law is B and A is second to the right of B.

Incorrect

A's mother-in-law is B and A is second to the right of B.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
Who among the following is D's daughter?
- B
- C
- E
- G
- H
Correct

D's daughter is E,

Incorrect

D's daughter is E,
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
- lmmediate right
- Third to the right
- Third to the left
- Second to the left
- Fourth to the left
Correct

A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.

Incorrect

A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
How many people sit between G and her uncle?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- More then four
Correct

G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anti-clockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.

Incorrect

G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anti-clockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- F
- C
- E
- H
- G
Correct

Except C all others are women

Incorrect

Except C all others are women
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
- C is the cousin of E
- H and H's husband are immediate neighbours of each other
- No female is an immediate neighbor of C
- H sits third to left of her daughter
- B is the mother of H
Correct

B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.

Incorrect

B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Who sits to the immediate left of C?
- F's Grandmother
- G's Son
- D's Mother-in-law
- A
- G
Correct

F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.

Incorrect

F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
(Q. Nos. 12-18) In each group of questions below are two/three Statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements
Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions l. No question is a test. (7)
II. Some tests are definitely not exams. (3)
Hence, only conclusion II follows from the given statements.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Statements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn- diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers (7)
II. No heat is force. (3)
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Statements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Incorrect

Conclusions. I No energy is heat. (3)
ll. Some forces being heat is a possibility. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Statements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)

II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)

II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Statements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)

II. All notes are plastic. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)

II. All notes are plastic. (7)

Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Statements
Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7)

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7)
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Statements
All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions
I. All vacancies are occupation.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
- if only conclusion I follows
- if only conclusion II follows
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
- if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Correct

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)

Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.

Incorrect

According to the statements, Venn-diagram is

Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)

Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following could possibly be C's score?
- 70
- 94
- 86
- 61
- 81
Correct

Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81

Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.

Incorrect

Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81

Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
- D's score was definitely less than 60
- F scored the maximum marks
- Only two people scored more than C
- There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
- None of the above is true
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.

The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score?
- 84
- 60
- 89
- 78
- 81
Correct

B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89

Incorrect

B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Which of the following is true regarding A?
- The person from UCO Bank faces A
- The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
- A faces the person who sits second io right of R
- A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
- A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
Correct

The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.

Incorrect

The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?
- The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
- P
- Q
- The person from Syndicate bank
- S
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
- D and the person from PNB
- The person from lndian Bank and UCO Bank
- The person from Dena Bank and P
- The person from Syndicate Bank and D
- C, O
Correct

The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.

Incorrect

The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
- The person from lndian Bank
- P
- R
- The person from Syndicate Bank
- The person from Canara Bank
Correct

The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,

Incorrect

The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who among the following is D related to, following the same pattern?
- Syndicate Bank
- Canara Bank
- Bank of Maharashtra
- Indian Bank
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
Correct

D is related to Indian Bank.

Incorrect

D is related to Indian Bank.
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- Canara Bank
- R
- Syndicate Bank
- Q
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
Correct

Except Q, all are on the ends of rows

Incorrect

Except Q, all are on the ends of rows
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following is from Syndicate Bank?
- C
- R
- P
- D
- A
Correct

P is from Syndicate Bank.

Incorrect

P is from Syndicate Bank.
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement)
- C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
- The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
- Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
- B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
C is from which of the following banks?
- Dena Bank
- Oriental Bank of Commerce
- UCO Bank
- Syndicate Bank
- Canara Bank
Correct

C is from Canara Bank.

Incorrect

C is from Canara Bank.
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six store building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the top most floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live, P lives on an even numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the top most floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R's floor.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From statement I,II and III people floor P-6, T-5, R-4, S-3, Q-2, V-.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor,

Incorrect

From statement I,II and III people floor P-6, T-5, R-4, S-3, Q-2, V-.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor,
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is 'ANSWER' the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point D is to the South of point C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of point F.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
How is'one'coded in the code language?
I. 'one of its kind'is coded as 'zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as 'ga to ru ko'
II. 'its point for origin' is coded as 'ba le fe mi' and 'make a point clear' is coded as 'yu si mi de'
III. 'make money and cash'is coded as 'to mi ru hy' and 'money of various kind'is coded as'qu ko zo hy'
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

From statement I, II and III
kind ---> Ko, Point ---> mi, money ---> hy,
of----> zo, and ---> ru, cash ---> to, its ---> fe
of its kind ---> zo fe ko
Hence, one ---> pi

Incorrect

From statement I, II and III
kind ---> Ko, Point ---> mi, money ---> hy,
of----> zo, and ---> ru, cash ---> to, its ---> fe
of its kind ---> zo fe ko
Hence, one ---> pi
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the center?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the center. C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbor of A. C sits to immediate right of D'
III. D is an immediate neighbor of both A and C' B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.
- if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to.answer the question while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
- if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
- if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).
- Chemical fertilizers harm the crop
- A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different.
- Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
- All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (Chemical as-well-as organic) in their farms.
- Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Correct

A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).

Incorrect

A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
- Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
- Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a super market set-up.
- There is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores.
- Super markets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones
Correct

The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'

Incorrect

The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
(Q. Nos. 37-40) These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E and F as given below.
A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the super markets.
B. As the super markets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
C. Super markets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much Lower as compared to the super markets.
F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.

Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D, E and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
- Only A
- Only B
- Both B and C
- Both D and E
- Only F
Correct

The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets.

Incorrect

The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets'
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
- Only A
- Only C
- Only E
- Only F
- Only B and C
Correct

Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.

Incorrect

Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
Which of the statements A, B,C,D and E mentioned above represents a. reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands?
- Only A
- Only B
- Only D
- Both A and D
- Both C and E
Correct

Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.

Incorrect

Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F mentioned above would Prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct?
- Only A
- Only C
- Only E
- Only F
- Only B and E
Correct

Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .

Incorrect

Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct

Incorrect
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series /sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series / sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
In each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Laurent Fabius, who visited New Delhi, recently, is the present foreign minister of which of the following countries?
- Germany
- Singapore
- France
- Spain
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
As per a recent UNESCO report, though India has managed to reduce the number of out-of-school children in the past decade, yet more than ________ children were out of school in 2011.
- 1 million
- 2 million
- 3 million
- 5 million
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The world’s largest multination naval exercise, 24th Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise, was conducted with 22 nations and six observer nations recently. Which of the following nations was NOT a participant in this year’s exercise?
- Japan
- Indonesia
- India
- China
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
Internet giant Google announced its ‘Android One’ programmed recently. This programme is aimed at which of the following?
- Driver-less cars
- Operating system for PCs
- An e-commerce application
- Low cost Devices
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
Which of the following airlines in India is all set to become the first Indian airline to officially join the Star Alliance, a global airline alliance?
- SpiceJet
- Air India
- IndiGo
- Jet Airways
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
In which of the following states the govt has launched ‘Amma Pharmacy’ to sell medicines at a fair price recently?
- Karnataka
- Tamil Nadu
- Kerala
- Andhra Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
The ban on the import of milk and milk products from which of the following countries has been extended for one more year till Jun 2015 recently?
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- Sri Lanka
- China
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
Which of the following two PSUs have been conferred the coveted Navratna status, recently, which would give these
firms more financial and operational autonomy?
- Engineers India Limited (EIL)
- National Buildings Construction Corporation (NBCC)
- Antrix Corporation Limited
- 4) Only 1) and 2)
- Only 1) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The World Population Day is observed every year on
- 8 Jul
- 11 Jul
- 12 Jul
- 14 Jul
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
General Bikram Singh visited which of the following countries, recently? This is the first official visit to this country by an Indian Army Chief in nine years.
- Myanmar
- China
- Japan
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Delhi is now the world’s second most populous city with 25 million inhabitants. Which of the following cities is the most populous in the world as of now?
- New York
- Shanghai
- Beijing
- Tokyo
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
Which of the following Indian airlines form formally joined the global airline group Star Alliance on 12 Jul? It has become the only Indian airline which is now member the 27 airlines club operating in 192 countries.
- Air India
- Jet Airways
- IndiGo
- AirAsia India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
An Indian-origin judge Justice VK Rajah has been appointed as the new attorney general of which of the following countries recently?
- Singapore
- Malaysia
- Indonesia
- US
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Grand old lady Zohra Sehgal died at the age of 102 years recently. A Padma Shri and Padma Vibhshan awardee, she was a noted
- novelist
- singer
- actress
- industrialist
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
Which of the following is NOT a new scheme announced in the Union Budget for 2014-15 recently?
- Namami Ganga
- Atal Jyoti Yojana
- Shyama Prassad Mukherjee Rozgar mission
- Deendayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti Yojna
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
The Union Budget for 2014-15 proposes to develop 100 new cities and a fund of ________ has been set aside for the purpose.
- Rs 5,080 cr
- Rs 6,550 cr
- Rs 7,060 cr
- Rs 8,020 cr
- 5) None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
The Union Budget for 2014-15 proposes REITS for infrastructure projects to reduce pressure on banking system. REITS stands for
- Real Estate Investment Trusts
- Real Estate Innovation Trusts
- Real Estate Infrastructure Trusts
- Real Estate Industrial Trusts
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
Which of the following is correct with respect to proposals in the Union Budget for FY15 regarding women?
- Women SHGs bank loan scheme to be extended to other districts.
- Rs 1500 cr on new scheme to improve safety of women in big cities.
- ‘Beti bacahao, beti padahao’ scheme to be launched with Rs 100 cr allocation.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
What is the budget allocation for the rural housing scheme in the Union Budget for FY15?
- Rs 6000 cr
- Rs 8000 cr
- Rs 10000 cr
- Rs 12000 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
As per the proposal made in the Union Budget for FY15, the Center would restructure BRGF, currently implemented in 272 backward districts in 27 States. What is the expanded form of BRGF?
- Backward Regions Grant Facility
- Backward Regions Ground Facility
- Backward Regions Grant fund
- Backward Regions Green Fund
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has emerged as the world’s largest consumer of antibiotics according to a new study ‘Global Trends in Antibiotic Consumption, 2000-2010’ released recently?
- India
- US
- China
- Russia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
Pakistan has declared the ancestral home of which of the following Indian personalities situated in the country as a national heritage recently?
- Lal Krishna Advani
- Dilip Kumar
- Yash Chopra
- Shekhar Kapur
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Which of the following teams secured the third place in the recently concluded FIFA World Cup held in Brazil?
- Netherlands
- Brazil
- Argentina
- France
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
We read about a term DONER in newspapers. This term is related to which of the following?
- It is a textile brand.
- It is a NGO active in the North Eastern region.
- It is the group of nuclear supplier countries.
- It is a Union Ministry for the North Eastern region.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
The govt has proposed an integrated programme for the conservation of river Ganga with an outlay of over ________in the Union Budget for FY15. The Conservation Mission will be called ‘Namami Gange’.
- Rs 1,000 cr
- Rs 2,000 cr
- Rs 3,000 cr
- Rs 4,000 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
the shortage of judges in the judiciary. Who among the following is the current chairman of the Law Commission?
- Justice Palanisamy Sathasivam
- Justice KG Balakrishnan
- Justice Mukul Mudgal
- Justice Ajit Prakash Shah
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The “India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2013” shows that there is an increase of 5871 sq km in the forest cover of the country compared to the previous report. The ISFR is released at what intervals?
- Annually
- Biennially
- After every three years
- After every five years
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
India launched the indigenously built ship ‘Sindhu Sadhna’ recently. Fitted with latest world-class equipments, this is a
- research ship
- fast attack ship
- nuclear powered patrol ship
- naval training ship
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
The govt has allocated what amount for the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) to create over 27 lakh jobs in the 12th Plan period ending Mar 2017?
- Rs 4,000 cr
- Rs 6,080 cr
- Rs 8,060 cr
- Rs 10,040 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
The govt announced appointment of new governors for various states recently. Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly in this regard?
- Ram Naik – Uttar Pradesh
- OP Kohli – Gujarat
- Keshari Nath Tripathi – West Bengal
- Padmanabha Acharya –Nagaland
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
11. As ruled by the World Trade Organization dispute settlement panel, recently, which of the following countries has broken global trade rules by slapping import duties on Indian steel products?
- China
- Bangladesh
- US
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The govt has slapped an additional penalty of USD 579 mn on which of the following oil companies for producing less than targeted natural gas from its KG-D6 block?
- Essar Oil
- Reliance Industries
- Gujarat State Petroleum Corporation
- Cairn India
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
The President Pranab Mukherjee presented the Gandhi Peace prize for 2013 to who among the following recently?
- Ela Bhatt
- Govind Mishra
- Shekhar Pathak
- Chandi Prasad Bhatt
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
The long-awaited BRICS Bank will be headquartered in which of the following cities?
- Fortaleza, Brazil
- Shanghai, China
- New Delhi, India
- Johannesburg, South Africa
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
The TRAI (Amendment) Bill has been cleared by both the houses of the Parliament. Why was this amendment Bill brought by the govt?
- The existing law allows a former TRAI Chairman to take up private job two years after retirement.
- The existing law bars a former TRAI Chairman from taking up a govt job ever in life.
- It was required to bring the telecom regulator on par with international regulators.
- It was required to deal with the 2G scam effectively.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
The Permanent Court of Arbitration at the Hague has announced it verdict that 19,467 sq km out of the total 25,602 sq km
disputed area with India in the Bay of Bengal will be handed over to
- Myanmar
- Bangladesh
- Sri Lanka
- Thailand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Brazil hosted the sixth BRICS summit recently. The group was originally formed as BRIC and became BRICS with theinclusion of South Africa in ________.
- 2008
- 2009
- 2010
- 2011
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
The BRICS group is playing an increasingly important role in the world economy. Examine the following facts about the
group and choose the statement which is NOT correct.
- At Goldman Sachs, Jim O’ Neil first coined the term BRIC in 2001.
- The theme of the sixth BRICS summit was ‘Inclusive Growth; Sustainable Development’.
- The Sixth BRICS Summit was held in Fortaleza and Brasilia in Brazil on 15-16 Jul 2014.
- BRICS make up 40 per cent of the world’s population and 25 per cent of the world’s landmass.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
World Population Day is observed on 11 Jul annually. Which of the following facts is NOT correct in the context of the
present global population?
- As of 1 Jan 2014, the world’s population was estimated to be 9,137,661,030.
- Vatican City and Nauru are the states with the lowest populations.
- China, India, USA, Indonesia, Pakistan and Brazil account for half the world’s people.
- Every seventh person in the world is an Indian.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
Examine the following facts with respect to the Railway Budget for FY15 and identify the only incorrect statement.
- Railways university for technical and non-technical subjects
- Loss per passenger per KM up from 10 per cent in 2000-01 to 33 per cent in 2012-13
- Highest ever plan outlay of Rs 65,455 cr for 2014-15
- Expenditure in 2014-15 pegged at Rs 149,176 cr.
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
Which of the following teams won the FIFA World Cup 2014 held in Brazil recently?
- Argentina
- Holland
- Germany
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
Which of the following state assemblies passed a bill to set up a new separate committee (SGPC) for the management of
Gurudwaras in the state recently?
- Rajasthan
- Haryana
- Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Which of the following state assemblies passed a bill to set up a new separate committee (SGPC) for the management of
Gurudwaras in the state recently?
- Rajasthan
- Haryana
- Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
The MP Bezbaruah committee submitted its report to the govt recently. This Committee was set up to look into which of the following matters related to North Eastern (NE) region?
- Availability of medical facilities in the NE region.
- Concerns of people from the NE region living in different parts of the country
- Feasibility to link all the seven NE states through railways.
- Measures to increase employment opportunities in the NE region
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
Who won the Golden Ball award at the FIFA World Cup held in Brazil recently?
- Arjen Robben
- James Rodriguez
- Thomas Muller
- Lionel Messi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The MSME Ministry launched a job portal recently. Which is of the following statements is/are correct with respect to
this new initiative?
- The portal – www.niesbudnaukri.com – provides a common platform to both the trained persons and the prospective employers.
- The portal is developed by the National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD).
- It is armed with the facility of free-of-cost online registration for employment in more than 150 job categories.
- Only 1) and 2)
- All 1), 2) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
Presenting the Budget 2014-15 proposals in Parliament, the Union Finance Minister has announced to set up a ________ venture capital fund for the MSME sector.
- Rs 5,000-cr
- Rs 10,000-cr
- Rs 15,000-cr
- Rs 20,000-cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
Examine the following with respect to the proposals of the Union Budget for FY15 and identify the one which is NOT
correct?
- New Watershed programme with outlay of Rs 2000 cr
- New teachers training scheme to be launched with the allocation of Rs 500 cr
- Rs 3600 cr for national rural drinking water programme
- National Centre of Humanities would be set up in Uttar Pradesh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
The first indigenously built anti-submarine warship (ASW) was handed over to the Indian Navy in Kolkata recently.
It is first in its class of four ASW corvettes being built under Project-28 for the Navy and is named
- INS Kolkata
- INS Maysore
- INS Kamorta
- INS Tarkash
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the proposals made in the Union Railway budget for the FY15 recently?
- FDI in railway projects including operations
- CCTVs to be used at stations for monitoring cleanliness
- Battery operated cars for differently-abled and senior citizens at major stations
- Women RPF Constables to escort ladies coaches; 4,000 women constables to be inducted
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
Which one of the following equations is not Maxwell’s equation for a static electro-magnetic field in a linear homogeneous medium?
- $\overline{V}\cdot \overrightarrow{B}=0$
- $\overline{V}\times\overrightarrow{B}=\overrightarrow{0}$
- $\oint _{C}=\overrightarrow{B}\cdot dl=\mu _{0}I$
- $\overline{V}^{2}\overrightarrow{A}=\mu _{0}\overrightarrow{J}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
An electric locomotive exerts attractive effort of 1000N while running on level track at a speed of 50 km/ph. The power required is equal to
- 13.8KW
- 25.8KW
- 26.3 KW
- 30.8 KW
Correct

Since power required = Tractive effort $\times$ speed

$1000\times \frac{50}{60\times 60}$ = 13.8 KW

Incorrect

Since power required = Tractive effort $\times$ speed

$1000\times \frac{50}{60\times 60}$ = 13.8 KW
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
What is the synchronous speed of a 50Hz. 4 pole motor?
- 1200rpm
- 1300rpm
- 1500 rpm
- 2000 rpm
Correct

Since Ns = $\frac{120f}{P}$ .

= $\frac{120\times 50}{4}$ = 1500rpm

Incorrect

Since Ns = $\frac{120f}{P}$ .

= $\frac{120\times 50}{4}$ = 1500rpm
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
Calculate the magnetic field in A-turn at the centre of a solenoid of 300 turns wound on a wooden core lm long for a current of 500 mA.
- 200 A-turn/m
- 150 A-turn/m
- 100 A-turn/m
- 50 A-turn/m
Correct

Since H = $\frac{NI}{1}$

$\frac{300\times 500\times 10^{-3}}{1}$

$150\frac{A-turn}{m}$

Incorrect

Since H = $\frac{NI}{1}$

$\frac{300\times 500\times 10^{-3}}{1}$

$150\frac{A-turn}{m}$
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
If the power of a conductor is 20 watts at 10 volts, what is its power at V/2 volts?
- 10W
- 20W
- 5W
- 15W
Correct

Since P = $i^{2}R$

$\frac{V^{2}}{R}\propto V^{2}$

Therefore power = $\frac{w}{4}$

$\frac{20}{4}$ = 5W

Incorrect

Since P = $i^{2}R$

$\frac{V^{2}}{R}\propto V^{2}$

Therefore power = $\frac{w}{4}$

$\frac{20}{4}$ = 5W
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
The integrated operational amplifier (OP AMP) can be used in
- Ac only
- Dc only
- AC and DC both
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
Which one of the following is a rectangular wave form generator?
- Monostable
- Astable
- Bistable multivibrator
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
Which logic family consumes least power?
- CMOS
- ECL
- TTL
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
The low frequency and high frequency asymptotes of Bode magnitude plot are respectively - 60 db/ decade and - 40 db/ decade. What is the type of the system?
- Type O
- Type I
- Type II
- Type III
Correct

Low frequency response / Initial slop mean type to says-tem are decided by the poles at the origine -60 db/decade gives three poles at origin i.e. type III system.

Incorrect

Low frequency response / Initial slop mean type to says-tem are decided by the poles at the origine -60 db/decade gives three poles at origin i.e. type III system.
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
At Triac is a switch which can be used
- Unidirectional
- Bidirectional
- both (1) and (2)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
Which logic family is fastest
- TTL
- CMOS
- ECL
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
An inverter converts
- AC into DC
- DC into AC
- Fixed AC to variable AC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
A converter changes
- AC into DC
- DC into AC
- Fixed DC to variable DC
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
A snubber circuit connected across a thyristor is used to limit the
- $\frac{\mathrm{d}v}{\mathrm{d}t}$ rise
- $\frac{\mathrm{d}i}{\mathrm{d}t}$ rise
- $\frac{\mathrm{d}r}{\mathrm{d}t}$ rise
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
How many rectifier diodes will be required to construct a three phase full-wave rectifier circuit?
- Three
- Four
- Five
- Six
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
Which one is more efficient?
- Series regulator
- Shunt regulator
- Compound regulator
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
What is the total voltage gain in dB of a three-stage amplifier if the gain of the first stage is 10, that of the second stage is 15 and the third stage is 25 dB?
- 50dB
- 30dB
- 20dB
- 1OdB
Correct

Av = 10+ 15 + 25 = 50 dB

Incorrect

Av = 10+ 15 + 25 = 50 dB
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
An amplifier has voltage gain of 1000 at 1 KHz which falls off to 505 at 3KHz and 60Hz What are the lower and upper cut-off frequencies?
- 50Hz, 2KHz
- 60Hz, 3 KHz
- 70Hz, 4KHz
- none
Correct

Since the gain falls to 50.5% at 3KHz and 60Hz the lower cutt off frequency = 60Hz. Upper cut-off frequency = 3 KHz.

Incorrect

Since the gain falls to 50.5% at 3KHz and 60Hz the lower cutt off frequency = 60Hz. Upper cut-off frequency = 3 KHz.
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
What is the output voltage of an OP AMP differentiating circuit having R = 1 Mohm and
C = 1µF if the input is a 5V/sec ramp function voltage?
- -10V
- -8V
- -5V
- -2V
Correct

Since $V_{0}=-R_{C}\left(\frac{dvi}{dt}\right)$

= $-1\times \times 10^{6}\times 1\times 10^{-6}\times 5$ = -5v

Incorrect

Since $V_{0}=-R_{C}\left(\frac{dvi}{dt}\right)$

= $-1\times \times 10^{6}\times 1\times 10^{-6}\times 5$ = -5v
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
The output voltage of an inverting OP AMP circuit having a feedback resistance of I M Q and input resistance of 200 KQ, and the input signal is 10 mV, is
- -0.1V
- -0.05V
- -0.01V
- -0.02V
Correct

Since $V_{0}=-V_{1}\left(\frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\right)$

= $V_{0}=-0.01\times \frac{100K\Omega}{200 K\Omega }$ = -0.05 V

Incorrect

Since $V_{0}=-V_{1}\left(\frac{R_{2}}{R_{1}}\right)$

= $V_{0}=-0.01\times \frac{100K\Omega}{200 K\Omega }$ = -0.05 V
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
Which of the following can act as a shield for electromagnetic waves?
- An iron grid or net
- A plastic sheet
- A concrete wall
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
Which of the following waves cannot be polarized?
- Sound
- Radio
- Light
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
What is the operating principle of optical fibre transmission?
- Diffraction
- Interference
- Total internal reflection
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
Resonant cavity is equivalent to which type of filter?
- Band pass
- High pass
- Low pass
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
Aircraft equipment operation frequency is
- 50Hz
- 200 Hz
- 400 Hz
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
What is the voltage range of brain?
- -5 to 200 µV
- -10 to 400 µV
- -15 to 600 µV
- 20 to 800 µV
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
Aircraft electronic equipments are designed to operate at higher frequencies
- To make them heavy
- To make them light
- To make them very heavy in weight
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
Which one is non-volatile?
- ROM
- RAM
- EPROM
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
Upto what radial distance (r) does the range of TV broadcast extend from a TV tower 200m high (h) if the radius (R) of the earth is 6.4 x 106m?
- 25.6 Km
- 50.6 Km
- 100.6 Km
- None of these
Correct

Since ,

r = $\sqrt{2Rh}$

= $\sqrt{2\times 6.4\times 10^{6}\times 200/10^{3}}$ Km = 50 . 6Km

Incorrect

Since ,

r = $\sqrt{2Rh}$

= $\sqrt{2\times 6.4\times 10^{6}\times 200/10^{3}}$ Km = 50 . 6Km
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
A radio transmitter has an input DC power of 500W. How much power is required to modulate the amplifier 100%?
- 150W
- 250W
- 300W
- 350W
Correct

Required power = $\frac{1}{2}\times (Modulation\: fraction)^{2}DC\: power$

= $\frac{1}{2}\times (1)^{2}\times 500W$ = 250W

Incorrect

Required power = $\frac{1}{2}\times (Modulation\: fraction)^{2}DC\: power$

= $\frac{1}{2}\times (1)^{2}\times 500W$ = 250W
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
A sinusoidal waveform when observed on an oscilloscope has a peak to peak amplitude of 6cm. If the vertical sensitivity setting 55 V/cm the rms value of the voltage will be
- where wide range from zero to normal is required
- where speed in both directives is required
- where the accuracy of speed control is required
- All the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
A sinusoidal waveform when observed on an oscilloscope has a peak to peak amplitude of 6cm. If the vertical sensitivity setting 55 V/cm the rms value of the voltage will be
- 10.6V
- 11.IV
- 12.6V
- 15V
Correct

Amplitude of the signal is

$\frac{6\times 5}{2}=15v$

Therefore rms value is $\frac{15}{\sqrt{2}}$ = 10.6v

Incorrect

Amplitude of the signal is

$\frac{6\times 5}{2}=15v$

Therefore rms value is $\frac{15}{\sqrt{2}}$ = 10.6v
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
In the two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced three phase circuit. One wattmeter shows zero and the other one is positive maximum the load power factor is
- zero
- 0.5
- 0.866
- 1.0
Correct

The watt meter read one x cos (30 + φ) then other x cos (30-φ) Thus when ever load p.f angle 3 φ becomes 60° one of the watt meter would read zero.
For the given condition load p.f is cos 60° = 0.5

Incorrect

The watt meter read one x cos (30 + φ) then other x cos (30-φ) Thus when ever load p.f angle 3 φ becomes 60° one of the watt meter would read zero.
For the given condition load p.f is cos 60° = 0.5
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
A transformer has a coreloss of 100W and full load copper loss of 400W. The maximum efficiency of the transformer will occur at
- 0.5 times full load current
- 0.6 times full load current
- 0.7 times full load current
- 0.8 times full load current
Correct

Since $x^{2}$ pc = Pi

$x=\sqrt{\frac{pi}{pc}}=\sqrt{\frac{100}{400}}$ = 0.5

Incorrect

Since $x^{2}$ pc = Pi

$x=\sqrt{\frac{pi}{pc}}=\sqrt{\frac{100}{400}}$ = 0.5
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
The time taken for a surge to travel a 600 km long overhead transmission link is
- 6 s
- 2 s
- 0.02 s
- 0.002 s
Correct

Since t = $\frac{600\times 10^{3}}{3\times 10^{8}}$ = 2ms = 0.002s

Incorrect

Since t = $\frac{600\times 10^{3}}{3\times 10^{8}}$ = 2ms = 0.002s
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
In a micro processor the resistor which holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched is
- Accumulator
- Program counter
- Stack pointer
- Instructor register
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
The major disadvantage of magnetic tapes is
- cost
- unreliability of stored data
- slow data recording
- data is to be accessed sequentially
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
What is the prefix tera equivalent to
- $10^{3}$
- $10^{6}$
- $10^{9}$
- $10^{12}$
Correct

103 $\Rightarrow$ killo

106 $\Rightarrow$ Mega

109 $\Rightarrow$ Gega

112 $\Rightarrow$ Tera

Incorrect

103 $\Rightarrow$ killo

106 $\Rightarrow$ Mega

109 $\Rightarrow$ Gega

112 $\Rightarrow$ Tera
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
What is the reciprocal of reactant?
- Susceptance
- Inductance
- Resistance
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
For heating and lighting purpose
- ac is better than dc
- dc is better than ac
- both are equally good for the same RMS value
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
Which network theorem gives current source equivalent circuit?
- Norton’s Theorem
- Thevenin’s Theorem
- Reciprocity Theorem
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
Which network has its own source or generator?
- Linear Network
- Active Network
- Passive Network
- Non-linear Network
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
In Mechanical Analogue system the capacitor is
- friction
- mass or inertia
- coiled spring
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
What is the unit of Susceptance
- Siemens
- mho
- watts/m2
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
A Butterworth fitter is known as
- An ideal high pass filter
- An ideal bond pass filter
- An ideal low pass filter
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
Ripple factor of Half Wave Rectifier is
- 1.21
- 1.11
- 1.1
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
Number of diodes used in Half-Wave Rectifier is
- Four
- Two
- One
- Three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
Which one is unipolar Transistor?
- BJT
- MOSFET
- FET
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
The Klystron is based on which principle?
- Phase modulation principle
- Amplitude modulation principle
- Velocity modulation principle
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
Power gain of a CE amplifier can be
- always positive
- always negative
- can be positive or negative
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Doping concentration is highest in
(1) collector
(2) base
(3) emitter
(4) gain
- collector
- base
- emitter
- gain
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
What is the average value of ac for the 220V mains supply.
- 220 V
- 198.17 V
- 188.17 V
- None of these
Correct

Since $E_{0}=\sqrt{2}E_{rms}$

= $\sqrt{2}\times 220$ = 311.13V $E_{av}$

= $\frac{2E_{0}}{\pi}=\frac{2\times 311.13}{3.14}=198.17V$

Incorrect

Since $E_{0}=\sqrt{2}E_{rms}$

= $\sqrt{2}\times 220$ = 311.13V $E_{av}$

= $\frac{2E_{0}}{\pi}=\frac{2\times 311.13}{3.14}=198.17V$
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
Reactance of a capacitor in 22 ohm on 50Hz ac mains
- $1.45\times 10^{-4}$ F
- $2.45\times 10^{-4}$ F
- $3.45\times 10^{-4}$ F
- $4.45\times 10^{-4}$ F
Correct

Since $X_{C}=\frac{1}{2\pi fc}$

$\therefore \frac{1}{2\pi fX_{C}}=\frac{1}{2\times 3.14\times 50\times 22}$

= $1.45\times 10^{-4}F$

Incorrect

Since $X_{C}=\frac{1}{2\pi fc}$

$\therefore \frac{1}{2\pi fX_{C}}=\frac{1}{2\times 3.14\times 50\times 22}$

= $1.45\times 10^{-4}F$
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
For a coil of self inductance 0.5H in series with a 100 ohm resister connected to a 220V 50Hz mains. The current in the circuit is
- 2.18A
- 1.18A
- 0.18 A
- None of these
Correct

Since I = $E\sqrt{R^{2}+W^{2}L^{2}}$

$E\sqrt{R^{2}+(2\pi f)^{2}L^{2}}$

$\frac{220}{\sqrt{(100)^{2}+4\times (3.14)^{2}\times (50)^{2}\times (0.5)^{2}}}$ = 1.18A

Incorrect

Since I = $E\sqrt{R^{2}+W^{2}L^{2}}$

$E\sqrt{R^{2}+(2\pi f)^{2}L^{2}}$

$\frac{220}{\sqrt{(100)^{2}+4\times (3.14)^{2}\times (50)^{2}\times (0.5)^{2}}}$ = 1.18A
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
What is the frequency of the ac waveform V = 10.8 sin 50t
- 8.96 Hz
- 9.96 Hz
- 7.96 Hz
- None of these
Correct

Since f = $\frac{50}{2\pi}$ = 7.96Hz

Incorrect

Since f = $\frac{50}{2\pi}$ = 7.96Hz
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Which one is more efficient system?
- Amplitude Modulation
- Frequency Modulation
- Phase Modulation
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
Which type of power supply is usually preferred for PC?
- Switched mode power supply
- Resonant power supply
- Bidirectional power supply
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
An integrating digital voltmeter measures
- true average value
- rms value
- peak value
- peak to peak value
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
A polarized electrolytic capacitor can be used
- Only is sinusoidal circuits
- Only in dc circuits
- in dc and sinusoidal ac circuits
- in circuits having any arbitrary wave form of cur-rent
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
Nibble is a combination of
- single binary digit
- two binary digits
- four binary digits
- eight binary digits
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
A basic memory element in a computer is an
- as table multivibrator
- mono stable multivibrator
- bistable multivibrator
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
Current gain for a CE amplifier is
- positive
- negative
- both positive and negative
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
For trigging the thyristor it requires
- only a pulse
- Continuous plus of cur-rent
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
A radar transmitter is modulated by pulses of 1 use duration at a frequency of 1KHz. Find the minimum range.
- 300 m
- 200 m
- 150m
- 100m
Correct

Minimum range is the distance traversed from the transmitter to the target and back

$\frac{1}{2}\mu s\times 300$ = 150 m.

Incorrect

Minimum range is the distance traversed from the transmitter to the target and back

$\frac{1}{2}\mu s\times 300$ = 150 m.
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
An oscillator circuit has frequency of 10 MHz. It is followed by frequency doubler and tripler stages. What is the output frequency?
- 30MHz
- 40MHz
- 50MHz
- 60MHz
Correct

Resultant output frequency = 10 MHz $\times$ 2 $\times$ 3 = 60 MHz

Incorrect

Resultant output frequency = 10 MHz $\times$ 2 $\times$ 3 = 60 MHz
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
For a given stepper motor the following torque has the highest numerical value.
- Detent torque
- Pull-in torque
- Pull-out torque
- Holding torque
Correct

Detent Torque: It is amount of torque that the motor produces when it is not energized. No current is flowing through the windings.

Holding Torque: It is amount of torque that the motor produces when it has rated current flowing through the winding but motor is at rest.

Pull-in-Torque: Shows the maximum value of torque at given speeds that the motor can start, stop or reverse in synchronism with the input pulses.

Pull-out Torque: Shows the maximum value of torque at given speeds that the motor can generate while running in synchronism. If the motor is run outside of this curve, it will stall

Incorrect

Detent Torque: It is amount of torque that the motor produces when it is not energized. No current is flowing through the windings.

Holding Torque: It is amount of torque that the motor produces when it has rated current flowing through the winding but motor is at rest.

Pull-in-Torque: Shows the maximum value of torque at given speeds that the motor can start, stop or reverse in synchronism with the input pulses.

Pull-out Torque: Shows the maximum value of torque at given speeds that the motor can generate while running in synchronism. If the motor is run outside of this curve, it will stall
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
The phase sequence of the 3-phase system shown in figure is
- RYB
- RBY
- BRY
- YBR
Correct

The phase sequence of the given figure is RBY. RYB, BRY and YBR represent the same phase sequence of the figure (given below).

Incorrect

The phase sequence of the given figure is RBY. RYB, BRY and YBR represent the same phase sequence of the figure (given below).
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
In thermal power plants, the pressure in the working fluid cycle is developed by
- condenser
- super heater
- feed water pump
- turbine
Correct

Condenser: The functions of condenser are
(i) To provide vaccum at outlet of steam turbine
(ii) To condense the steam and pass on the condensate to boiler feed.
Super-heater is a device used to convert saturated steam or wet steam into dry steam used for power generation process.

Incorrect

Condenser: The functions of condenser are
(i) To provide vaccum at outlet of steam turbine
(ii) To condense the steam and pass on the condensate to boiler feed.
Super-heater is a device used to convert saturated steam or wet steam into dry steam used for power generation process.
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
A 50 Hz bar primary CT has a secondary with 500 turns. The secondary supplies 5 A current into a purely resistive burden of 1 Ω. The magnetizing ampereturns is 200 the phase angle between the primary and secondary current is
- 4.6°
- 85.4°
- 94.6°
- 175.4°
Correct

phase angle between primary and secondary current

$\theta =\left(\frac{180}{\pi}\right)\left(\frac{I_{m}}{nI_{s}}\right)$ degree

no of turns in primery = $N_{p}$ = 1

no of turns in secondary = $N_{s}$ = 500

n = turns ratio = $\frac{N_{S}}{N_{P}}=500$

$I_{a}$ = secondary winding current = 5A

Magnetizing ampere turn = 200

$I_{m}=\frac{Magnetizing\: ampee\: turn}{N_{P}}$

$I_{m}=\frac{200}{1}$ = 200

$\theta =\left(\frac{180}{\pi}\right)\left (\frac{200}{500\times 5}\right)\approx 4.6^{\circ}$

Incorrect

phase angle between primary and secondary current

$\theta =\left(\frac{180}{\pi}\right)\left(\frac{I_{m}}{nI_{s}}\right)$ degree

no of turns in primery = $N_{p}$ = 1

no of turns in secondary = $N_{s}$ = 500

n = turns ratio = $\frac{N_{S}}{N_{P}}=500$

$I_{a}$ = secondary winding current = 5A

Magnetizing ampere turn = 200

$I_{m}=\frac{Magnetizing\: ampee\: turn}{N_{P}}$

$I_{m}=\frac{200}{1}$ = 200

$\theta =\left(\frac{180}{\pi}\right)\left (\frac{200}{500\times 5}\right)\approx 4.6^{\circ}$
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
The current through the Zener diode in figure is
- 33 mA
- 3.3 mA
- 2 mA
- 0 mA
Correct

$R_{Z}=\frac{\Delta V_{Z}}{\Delta I_{Z}}=\frac{3.5-3.3}{\Delta I_{Z}}$

$\therefore \Delta I_{Z}=\frac{0.2}{0.1K}=2mA$

Incorrect

$R_{Z}=\frac{\Delta V_{Z}}{\Delta I_{Z}}=\frac{3.5-3.3}{\Delta I_{Z}}$

$\therefore \Delta I_{Z}=\frac{0.2}{0.1K}=2mA$
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
The feedback used in the circuit shown in figure car classified as?
- shunt-series feedback
- shunt-shunt feedback
- series - shunt feedback
- series -series feedback
Correct

Equivalent circuit can be drawn with input voltage comparison and current feedback. It is shunt-shunt feedback.

Incorrect

Equivalent circuit can be drawn with input voltage comparison and current feedback. It is shunt-shunt feedback.
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
If $\overline{E}$ is the electric field intensity . $\overline{V}(\overline{V}\times \overline{E})$ = 0 is equal to
- $\overline{E})$
- | $\overline{E})$ |
- null vector
- zero
Correct

Divergence of a curl field is always zero ie , $\overline{V}(\overline{V}\times \overrightarrow{E})$ = 0

Incorrect

Divergence of a curl field is always zero ie , $\overline{V}(\overline{V}\times \overrightarrow{E})$ = 0
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
A bipolar junction transistor (BJP) is used as a power control switch by biasing it in the cut-off region (OFF state) or in the saturation region (ON state). In the ON state, for the BJT
- both the base-emitter and base-collector junctions are reverse biased
- the base-emitter junction is reverse biased, and the base- collector junction is forward biased
- the base-emitter junction is forward biased, and the base-collector junction is reverse biased
- both the base-emitter and base-collection junction are forward biased
Correct

$V_{CB}=V_{CE}-V_{DE}$
Under saturated state, $V_{BES}$ , greater than $V_{CES}$ base- emitter junction (BEJ) is forward biased. $V_{CB}$ is negative under saturated conditions, therefore base- collector junction (CBJ) is also forward biased.

Incorrect

$V_{CB}=V_{CE}-V_{DE}$
Under saturated state, $V_{BES}$ , greater than $V_{CES}$ base- emitter junction (BEJ) is forward biased. $V_{CB}$ is negative under saturated conditions, therefore base- collector junction (CBJ) is also forward biased.
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
A fair coin is tossed three times in succession. If the first toss produces a head, then the probability of getting exactly two heads in three tosses is
- $\frac{1}{8}$
- $\frac{1}{2}$
- $\frac{3}{8}$
- $\frac{3}{4}$
Correct

P(AB) = $\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}$

= P(First toss is head0 = $\frac{1}{2}$

Incorrect

P(AB) = $\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}$

= P(First toss is head0 = $\frac{1}{2}$
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
Two conducting coils 1 and 2 (identical except that 2 is split) are placed in a uniform magnetic field which decreases at a constant rate as in the figure. If the planes of the coils are perpendicular to the field lines, the following statements are made.
1. an e.m.f is induced in the split coil 2
2. e.m.fs are induced in both coils
3. equal-Joule heating occurs in both coils
4. Joule heating does not occurs in any coils Which of the above statements is/are true?
- 1 and 4
- 2 and 4
- 3 only
- 2 only
Correct

Emf is induced in both the coils but coil 2 is open-circuited, therefore no current will flow and is no joule heating.

Incorrect

Emf is induced in both the coils but coil 2 is open-circuited, therefore no current will flow and is no joule heating.
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
With an increase temperature, the Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor
- Moves closer to the conduction band edge
- Moves closer to the valence band edge
- Moves into the conduction band
- Remains at the center of the forbidden gap
Correct

Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor is independent of temperature

Incorrect

Fermi level in an intrinsic semiconductor is independent of temperature
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Superposition theorem is not applicable for
- Voltage calculations
- Bilateral elements
- Power calculations
- Passive elements
Correct

$P=I^{2}R=\frac{V^{2}}{R}$ is a non linear response

Incorrect

$P=I^{2}R=\frac{V^{2}}{R}$ is a non linear response
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
In a p-n junction, to make the depletion region extent pre-dominantly into P-region the concentration of impurities in the P-region must be
- Much less than the concentration of impurities in n-region
- Much higher than the concentration of impurities in n-region
- Equal to the concentration of impurities in n-region
- Zero
Correct

Region is completely free from any mobile charge. It is behave just like Capacitor, which is controlled by applied voltage at P and N side. Forward bias causes Depletion region to shrink, so increase the value of capacitor. Total Depletion region width

W = $W_{n}+W_{p}$

$N_{D}W_{n}+N_{A}W_{p}$

means for highly dropped region the Depletion region is less in that side.

Incorrect

Region is completely free from any mobile charge. It is behave just like Capacitor, which is controlled by applied voltage at P and N side. Forward bias causes Depletion region to shrink, so increase the value of capacitor. Total Depletion region width

W = $W_{n}+W_{p}$

$N_{D}W_{n}+N_{A}W_{p}$

means for highly dropped region the Depletion region is less in that side.
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
simplified form of a logic function $Y=\overline{(A\bar{B}\cdot(\bar{A}B)}$
- A + B
- AB
- $\overline{A}+\overline{B}$
- $\overline{A}B+A\overline{B}$
Correct

$Y=[\overline{(A\bar{B})\cdot (\overline{\overline{AB}})}]$

$Y=(\overline{\overline{A\bar{B}}})+(\overline{\overline{\bar{A}B}})=A\overline{B}+\overline{A}B$

Incorrect

$Y=[\overline{(A\bar{B})\cdot (\overline{\overline{AB}})}]$

$Y=(\overline{\overline{A\bar{B}}})+(\overline{\overline{\bar{A}B}})=A\overline{B}+\overline{A}B$
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
For an AM signal, the bandwidth is 10 kHz and the highest frequency component present is 705 kHz. The carrier frequency used for this AM signal is
- 695 kHz
- 700 kHz
- 705 kHz
- 710 kHz
Correct

$f_{c}+f_{m}=705$ kHz

$2f_{m}=10kHz$

$f_{c}=700kHz$

Incorrect

$f_{c}+f_{m}=705$ kHz

$2f_{m}=10kHz$

$f_{c}=700kHz$
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The type number of the control system with

G(S)H(S) = $\frac{K(S+2)}{S(S^{2}+2S+3)}$
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct

Pole at origin gives type of the system i.e. one

Incorrect

Pole at origin gives type of the system i.e. one
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
In the absence of vertical scanning the raster
- Has a reduced height
- Is a horizontal line
- A vertical line
- Has a reduced width
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
Which of the following d.c. generator cannot build up on open-circuit?
- shunt
- series
- short shunt
- long shunt
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
Kirchoff’s voltage law is concerned with
- IR drops
- battery e.m.fs
- junction voltages
- both (1) arid (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
Kirchoffs current law is applicable to only
- closed loops in a network
- electronic circuits
- junctions in a network
- electric circuits
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
The r.m.s. value of a half-wave rectified current is 10 A, its value for full-wave rectification would be — amperes.
- 20
- 14.14
- 20/π
- 40/π
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
Satellite may reuse the same frequency in the same area by
- Having many small antennas
- Overlapping radiation zones
- TDMA
- FDMA
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
The code division multiple access technique is not usually used because
- It requires very large band-width
- The circuitry required is very complex.
- The system becomes too expensive
- Its technology has not been completely developed as yet.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
In a spin stabilized geostationary satellite, the spin axis is
- Perpendicular to the orbital plane
- In the plane of the orbit
- Inclined at 45° to the orbital plane
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
Number of satellites in global positioning system.
- 12
- 24
- 3
- 6
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
Satellite transponder a
- Receiver and a transmitter designed to relay microwave transmission from one point on earth to another.
- Device that echoes the radiation without change from one point to another.
- Device that transformer the message sent from one location on earth to a different code for transmission to another location.
- None of these.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
A 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 1440 r.p.m. The rotating field produced by the rotor rotates at a speed of ....r.p.m. with respect to the rotor.
- 1500
- 1440
- 60
- 0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
In small d.c machines, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but are skewed. Through skewing makes winding a little more difficult, yet it results in
- quieter operation
- slight decrease in losses
- saving of copper
- both (1) and (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
. For the earth station antennas to be 6 feet in diameter, the satellite frequency bands must be in
- $\frac{4}{6}$ GHz range
- $\frac{6}{7}$ GHz range
- $\frac{9}{13}$ GHz range
- Both (1) and (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
If Cu loss of a transformer at 7/8th full load is 4900 W, then its full-load Cu loss would be………watt.
- 5600
- 6400
- 375
- 429
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
The primary reason why open-circuit test is performed on the low-voltage winding of the transformer is that it
- draws sufficiently large unload current for convenient reading
- requires least voltage to perform the test
- needs minimum power in-put
- involves less core loss.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
The maximum efficiency of a 100-kVA transformer having iron loss of 900 kW and F.L. Cu loss of 1600 W occurs at.... kVA.
- 56.3
- 133.3
- 75
- 177.7
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
When a V - V system is converted into a ∆ - ∆ system, increase in capacity of the system is percent.
- 86.6
- 66.7
- 73.2
- 50
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
Intermediate (1) layer of PIN diode imparts which one of the following features to a pn junction diode?
- High reverse blocking capability
- High forward current rating
- Inverting capability
- Poor turn off performance
Correct

In PIN diode intrinsic layer decides the reverse bloking capacity.

Incorrect

In PIN diode intrinsic layer decides the reverse bloking capacity.
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
What is the power contained in SSB transmission when the carrier power is 1 k W and the modulation index is 0.3?
- 22.5 W
- 90 W
- 300 W
- 1 kW
Correct

Given $P_{C}$ = 1000 W and $m_{a}$ = 0.3

$P_{SB}=P_{C}\cdot \frac{m_{a}^{2}}{4}$

$100\times \frac{(0.3)^{2}}{4}=250\times 0.09$ = 22.3 W

Incorrect

Given $P_{C}$ = 1000 W and $m_{a}$ = 0.3

$P_{SB}=P_{C}\cdot \frac{m_{a}^{2}}{4}$

$100\times \frac{(0.3)^{2}}{4}=250\times 0.09$ = 22.3 W