Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 3 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Electrical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Who sits second to the left of Q?
- V
- P
- T
- Y
- Cannot be determined
Correct

P is second to the left of Q because Q is facing at centre.

Incorrect

P is second to the left of Q because Q is facing at centre.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

What is the position of T with respect to V?
- Fourth to the left
- Second to the left
- Third to the left
- Third to the right
- Second to the right
Correct

The position of T is third to the left of V because V is facing outside.

Incorrect

The position of T is third to the left of V because V is facing outside.
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- R
- W
- V
- S
- Y
Correct

S is facing at centre but R, W, V, Y are facing outside.

Incorrect

S is facing at centre but R, W, V, Y are facing outside.
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating arrangement?

WP TR QW RS ?
- Y T
- V Y
- V Q
- P Y
- Q V
Correct

(Note Ignore left and right and move in clockwise direction only)

Incorrect

(Note Ignore left and right and move in clockwise direction only)
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
Study the following inform.action carefully and answer the given questions.
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square, while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre, while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who faces the centre sits third to the right of V' T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbour of P.

Which of the following is true regarding R ?
- R is an immediate neighbour of V
- R faces the centre
- R sits exactly between T and S
- Q sits third to left of R
- None is true
Correct

R sits exactly between T and S.Here we should ignore left and right.

Incorrect

R sits exactly between T and S.Here we should ignore left and right.
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What is the code for 'Piece'?
- 3
- 6
- 1
- 7
- Cannot be determined
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6     lots=0
piece = 7 friends= 4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6     lots=0
piece = 7 friends= 4
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '9' stand for?
- of
- mine
- friend
- lots
- metal
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916    ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .......(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163   ...........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6              lots=0
piece = 7   friends =4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916    ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109 .......(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163   ...........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6              lots=0
piece = 7   friends =4
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

Which of the following may represent 'a pleasure of mine'?
- 6309
- 5216
- 9216
- 3694
- 5041
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916                      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109                 ...........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend = 4

[Explanation: a = 6, of = 1 and mine = 9- and we don't know the code ofpleasure but seeing the answer options 6, 1, 9, is available in answer option(3)only]

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916                      ..........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109                 ...........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                      ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend = 4

[Explanation: a = 6, of = 1 and mine = 9- and we don't know the code ofpleasure but seeing the answer options 6, 1, 9, is available in answer option(3)only]
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

What does '0' stand for?
- mine
- metal
- of
- lots
- a
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916                   .........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109              .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                  ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916                   .........(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109              .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163                  ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code, 'a friend of mine' is written as '4916', 'mine lots of metal' is written as ' 3109' and 'a piece of metal is written as'7163'.

'873'would mean
- a metal piec
- metal for friend
- piece of advise
- friend of mine
- large metal piece
Correct

a friend of mine = 4916         ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109     .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163        ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

We know the code of 7 and 3, ie, piece and metal. Once again you have to do intelligent guess with the help of answer options. The answers option will
be (5).

Incorrect

a friend of mine = 4916         ......(i)
mine lots of metal = 3109     .........(ii)
a piece of metal = 7163        ..........(iii)
From eq (i) and (ii), of mine = 1, 9
From eq (ii) and (iii), of metal = 1, 3
So, of = 1 metal = 3, mine = 9. Similarly, you can find
the code of all by comparing equations.
a=6 lots= 0
piece = 7 friend= 4

We know the code of 7 and 3, ie, piece and metal. Once again you have to do intelligent guess with the help of answer options. The answers option will
be (5).
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
- B, E
- S, T
- P, R
- B, F
- None of these
Correct

P, R sits extreme ends of rows, who are facing southward.

Incorrect

P, R sits extreme ends of rows, who are facing southward.
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following faces A?
- R
- T
- P
- Q
- S
Correct

S is facing A.

Incorrect

S is facing A.
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

How many persons are seated between T and S?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- None
Correct

There are two persons Q, V sits between T and S.

Incorrect

There are two persons Q, V sits between T and S.
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. To which of the following is E related to, following the same pattern?
- B
- D
- C
- A
- None of these
Correct

V is third to the East of P and F is also third to the East of C. So, B will be the correct answer because B is third to the East of E.

Incorrect

V is third to the East of P and F is also third to the East of C. So, B will be the correct answer because B is third to the East of E.
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Which of the following is true regarding F?
- F sits second to right of C
- F is not an immediate neighbour of A
- F sits third to left of D
- F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
- F faces V
Correct

F faces V.

Incorrect

F faces V.
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Study following information to answer the given questions.
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1. P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends. T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbour of T. B sits at one of the extreme ends" Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. Two persons sit between R and Q. R is not an immediate neighbour of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbour of R'

Who amongst the following sits exactly between P and Q?
- R
- V
- S
- T
- Cannot be determined
Correct

T is exactly between P and Q.

Incorrect

T is exactly between P and Q.
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Who amongst L, M, N, O and P is the shortest?
I. O is shorter than P but taller than N.
II. M is not as tall as L.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

I .N<O<P
II. L>M
Hence, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question, ie, who is shortest ?

Incorrect

I .N<O<P
II. L>M
Hence, both statements are not sufficient to answer the question, ie, who is shortest ?
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Are all the five friends uiz Leena, Amit, Arun, Ali and Ken who are seated around a circular table facing the centre.
I.Leena sits second to left of Amit. Amit faces the centre. Arun sits second to right of Leena.
II. Ali sits third to the left of Ken. Ken faces the centre. Amit sits to the immediate left of Ali, but Ken is not an immediate neighbour of Amit.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

So, from I and II, we can say Ali, Amit and Ken are facing centre. Since Ken is second left of Amit so, Leena can't. So, all are not facing centre. So, both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Incorrect

So, from I and II, we can say Ali, Amit and Ken are facing centre. Since Ken is second left of Amit so, Leena can't. So, all are not facing centre. So, both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Is T grandmother of Q?
I. P is the mother of Q. Q is the son of R. R is the son of T.
II. L is father of N and N is daughter of T.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Since Q is the son of R. So, Q is male also R is son of T so, R is also male. Here, the sex of T is not clear. It may be male or female So, T may be grandfather or grandmother of Q.
II. We have to establish the relation between T and Q and in statement II, Q is nowhere. So, relationship cannot find.
So, finally both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

Incorrect

Since Q is the son of R. So, Q is male also R is son of T so, R is also male. Here, the sex of T is not clear. It may be male or female So, T may be grandfather or grandmother of Q.
II. We have to establish the relation between T and Q and in statement II, Q is nowhere. So, relationship cannot find.
So, finally both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
Point A is towards which direction from point B?
I. If a person walks 4 m towards the North from point A and takes two consecutive right turns, each after walking 4 m, he would reach point C, which is 8 m away from point B.
II. Point D is 2 m towards the East of point A and 4 m towards the West of point B.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Take r = 8 m and draw a circle around this radius.
Now, B can be anywhere at circular path. So, we cannot exactly find the direction between A and B.
II.
So, A is in West of B.
So, Statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.

Incorrect

Take r = 8 m and draw a circle around this radius.
Now, B can be anywhere at circular path. So, we cannot exactly find the direction between A and B.
II.
So, A is in West of B.
So, Statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Each of the questions below consists of a question, and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to consumer the question. Read both the statements and
How many brothers does Bharat have ?
I. Shiela, the mother of Bharat has only three children.
II. Meena, the grandmother of Bharat has only one granddaughter.
- if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
- if the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
- if the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question
Correct

Shiela has three children, and the sex of two is not clear. If we took Bharat as a male. However, some people say that Bharat may be female but commonly we find Bharat as a male in the society.
So, according to statement II, we can find the number of brothers of Bharat. So, statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.

Incorrect

Shiela has three children, and the sex of two is not clear. If we took Bharat as a male. However, some people say that Bharat may be female but commonly we find Bharat as a male in the society.
So, according to statement II, we can find the number of brothers of Bharat. So, statement II is alone sufficient to give answer.
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement If parking space is not available office, park your vehicles in the mall and walk to are a in the office.
Assumptions
I. The mall is at a walkable distance from the office.
II. The office does not allow visitors' vehicles in its premises.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Assumption I is implicit, because if there is no parking space, then "park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office" given in statement justify that mall is at a walkable distance from the office. Office allows all vehicles till space is available.

Incorrect

Assumption I is implicit, because if there is no parking space, then "park your vehicles in the mall and walk to the office" given in statement justify that mall is at a walkable distance from the office. Office allows all vehicles till space is available.
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement Farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers from chemical fertilizers for better yield.
Assumptions
I. All the farmers use only chemical fertilizers.
II. Organic fertilizers are readily available to the farmers.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Here, all and only does not make assumption I implicit. Since it is already specified in the statement that farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers means organic fertilizers are available.

Incorrect

Here, all and only does not make assumption I implicit. Since it is already specified in the statement that farmers must immediately switch over to organic fertilizers means organic fertilizers are available.
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement An advertisement by bank X-'Our interest rates for education loans are lower than any other bank'.
Assumptions
I. Some other banks also provide education loans.
II. Interest rates charged on education loans are different for different banks.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

According to bank X, interest rate is comparing to others, means some other banks are also providing education loans. Also interest rates varies bank to bank.
So, both assumptions are implicit.

Incorrect

According to bank X, interest rate is comparing to others, means some other banks are also providing education loans. Also interest rates varies bank to bank.
So, both assumptions are implicit.
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement For any kind of problem with your mobile phone, contact our help desk immediately.
Assumptions
I. Help desk has a solution to all kinds of problems related to mobile phones or will guide accordingly.
II. Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved.
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved at that particular desk, but it can be solved by someone else. So, only I is impiicit.

Incorrect

Unless the problem is reported immediately, it cannot be solved at that particular desk, but it can be solved by someone else. So, only I is impiicit.
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for grunted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement Use our medicine to fight the problem of obesity.
Assumptions
I. Other slimming medicines available in the market do not reduce weight.
II. Obesity cannot be controlled without medicines
- if only assumption I is implicit
- if only assumption II is implicit
- if either assumption I or assumption II is implicit
- if neither assumption I nor assumption II is implicit
- if both assumptions I and II implicit
Correct

Assumption I is not implicit because only that medicine is not which can reduce weight, and also weight can reduce without medicines.

Incorrect

Assumption I is not implicit because only that medicine is not which can reduce weight, and also weight can reduce without medicines.
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

On which of the following days is Physics taught?
- Monday
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

How many subjects are taught between Botany and Zoology?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct

Three subjects i e Maths, Chemistry and Statistics.

Incorrect

Three subjects i e Maths, Chemistry and Statistics.
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

Which of the following subjects is taught on Saturday?
- Botany
- Statistics
- Zoology
- Maths
- Physics
Correct

Incorrect
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

On which of the following days is Statistics taught?
- Tuesday
- Wednesday
- Thursday
- Friday
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions
One of the seven subjects viz. Maths, Zoology, Botany, Chemistry Physics, English and Statistics is taught on one day in a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught on Thursday. English is taught the day immediately next to the day when Zoology is taught. English is neither taught on Tuesday nor on Saturday. Only one lecture is held between Chemistry and Botany. Two lectures are scheduled between Maths and Zoology. Statistics is neither taught on Monday nor Sunday.

If Statistics is related to Zoology and Physics is related to Botany in a certain way, then 'to which of the following would Chemistry be related to, following the same pattern?
- Maths
- Statistics
- Physics
- English
- Cannot be determined
Correct

Incorrect
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
The following questions are based upon the alphabetical series given below

S L U A Y J V E I O N Q G Z B D R H

If 'SU' is related to 'HD' and 'UY' is related to 'DZ' in a certain way, to which of the following is 'YV' related to,following the same pattern?
- ZQ
- IN
- BG
- QO
- DZ
Correct

So, YV is related to ZQ.

Incorrect

So, YV is related to ZQ.
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
- Trophy
- Medal
- Gift
- Certificate
- Prize
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

gift is not gained by a competition
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- MPQO
- DGHF
- RUTV
- VYZX
- jMNL
Correct

Incorrect
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- AMCL
- WIVK
- GVIU
- XDZC
- HRJQ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
Four of the foilowing five are alike in a certain way based upon the order in which these appear in the English alphabetical series and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
- AZMN
- BYEF
- cxuv
- FUNO
- IRDV
Correct

Incorrect
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
Seven lectures are scheduled to be held in a week. There is only one lecture on each of the seven days of the week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Chemistry is taught either on Wednesday or on Saturday. Three lectures are scheduled Lo be held between Chemistry and English, Two lectures are scheduled to be held between English and Computers. Lecture on Physics is scheduled on the day which is immediately next to the day when lecture on Biology is scheduled. Lecture on Psychological, is scheduled to be held after Mathematics (not necessarily immediately after mathematics). Lecture on Psychology is not scheduled for Saturday or Sunday.

Which of the following lectures is scheduled for Thursday?
- Mathematics
- English
- Physics
- Biology
- Computers
Correct

Incorrect
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
Which of the following combinations of day-lecture is correct?
- Saturday-Physics
- Monday-Biology
- Tuesday-English
- Thursday-English
- Sunday-Computers
Correct

Incorrect
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
How many lectures are scheduled between Chemistry and Physics?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- five
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

computers,biology
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
If Chemistry is related to Biology and Psychology is related to Computers in a certain way based upon the given lecture schedule, then Biology will be related to which of the following based upon the same relationship?
- English
- Mathematics
- Physics
- Chemistry
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
On which of the following days is the lecture on Psychology scheduled?
- Tuesday
- Friday
- Thursday
- Monday
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
Which of the following lecture/s is/are scheduled to be held between the lectures on Chemistry and Physics?
- No lecture is scheduled between these two lectures
- Only Computers
- Computers and Psychology
- Computers and Biology
- English and Mathematics
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
How many lectures are scheduled to be held between English and mathematics?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Five
Correct

Incorrect

Hint

Physics,Biology,Computers,Chemistry,Physiology
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the face with symbol * ?
- +
- @
- 6
- 8
Correct

The symbols of the adjacent faces to the face with symbol * are @, -, + and $. Hence the required symbol is 8.

Incorrect

The symbols of the adjacent faces to the face with symbol * are @, -, + and $. Hence the required symbol is 8.
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the face containing 5 points?
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 10
Correct

In these two positions one of the common face having 1 point is in the same position. Therefore according to rule (2). There will be 4 points on the required face.

Incorrect

In these two positions one of the common face having 1 point is in the same position. Therefore according to rule (2). There will be 4 points on the required face.
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4?
- 3
- 6
- 9
- 12
Correct

Here the common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence 6 is opposite to 2 and 5 is opposite to 1. Therefore 4 is opposite to 3.

Incorrect

Here the common faces with number 3, are in same positions. Hence 6 is opposite to 2 and 5 is opposite to 1. Therefore 4 is opposite to 3.
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
A good way to figure out the relationship in a given question is to make up a sentence that describes the relationship between the first two words. Then, try to use the same sentence to find out which of the answer choices completes the same relationship with the third word.
Careful is to cautious as boastful is to
- arrogant
- humble
- joyful
- suspicious
Correct

Careful and cautious are synonyms (they mean the same thing). Boastful and arrogant are also synonyms. The answer is not (choice b) because humble means the opposite of boastful. The answer is not choice c or d because neither means the same as boastful.

Incorrect

Careful and cautious are synonyms (they mean the same thing). Boastful and arrogant are also synonyms. The answer is not (choice b) because humble means the opposite of boastful. The answer is not choice c or d because neither means the same as boastful.
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
Pen is to poet as needle is to
- thread
- button
- sewing
- tailor
Correct

A pen is a tool used by a poet. A needle is a tool used by a tailor. The answer is not choice a, b, or c because none is a person and therefore cannot complete the analogy.

Incorrect

A pen is a tool used by a poet. A needle is a tool used by a tailor. The answer is not choice a, b, or c because none is a person and therefore cannot complete the analogy.
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
Secretly is to openly as silently is to
- scarcely
- scarcely
- noisily
- quietly
Correct

Secretly is the opposite of openly, and silently is the opposite of noisily. Choices a and b are clearly not the opposites of silently. (Choice d) means the same thing as silently.

Incorrect

Secretly is the opposite of openly, and silently is the opposite of noisily. Choices a and b are clearly not the opposites of silently. (Choice d) means the same thing as silently.
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
Embarrassed is to humiliated as frightened is to
- terrified
- agitated
- courageous
- reckless
Correct

If someone has been humiliated, they have been greatly embarrassed. If someone is terrified, they are extremely frightened. The answer is not choice b because an agitated person is not necessarily frightened. Choices c and d are incorrect because neither word expresses a state of being frightened.

Incorrect

If someone has been humiliated, they have been greatly embarrassed. If someone is terrified, they are extremely frightened. The answer is not choice b because an agitated person is not necessarily frightened. Choices c and d are incorrect because neither word expresses a state of being frightened.
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Who among the following Finance Ministers of India had/has presented the Union Budget ten times, the most by any Finance Minister so far?
- Morarji Desai
- Manmohan Singh
- Pranab Mukherjee
- Yashwant Sinha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
Three new judges assumed charge as Supreme Court judges recently taking its strength to 27. What is the sanctioned strength of judges in the apex court, including the Chief Justice?
- 27
- 29
- 31
- 33
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
The first bill of the new BJP govt, the National Institute of Design Bill 2013, was passed in the Rajya Sabha recently. Now, declared an institution of national importance, the National Institute of Design is situated at
- Bhopal
- Pune
- Ahmedabad
- Lucknow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
As mentioned by the Union Railways Minister Sadananda Gowda in the recent Railway Budget, what is the operating surplus of the Indian Railways as of now?
- 5 per cent
- 6 per cent
- 8 per cent
- 11 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
India has now formally become the 19th permanent member of the UN renewable agency, the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). This agency is based in
- Doha
- Manila
- Kuala Lumpur
- Abu Dhabi
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
As per the recent notification issued by the telecom sector regulator Trai, the minimum broadband speed has been raised from the earlier 256 kbps to
- 512 kbps
- 768 kbps
- 1024 kbps
- 1280 kbps
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the Afghanistan’s presidential election as per the preliminary results released recently?
- Abdul Qayum Karzai
- Daud Sultanzoy
- Abdullah Abdullah
- Ashraf Ghani
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
What minimum pension has been approved by the govt under Employees Pension Scheme 1995 (EPS-95) run by the EPFO recently?
- Rs 1,000
- Rs 1,500
- Rs 2,000
- Rs 2,500
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The 6th BRICS summit will be held in Brazil on 15-16 Jul. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the BRICS
group?
- South Africa
- China 3) Russia
- Indonesia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
320. Presenting his maiden Railways Budget, the Union Railways Minister Sadananda Gowda proposed to start Bullet train in which of the following sectors?
- Delhi-Chandigarh
- Mumbai-Ahmedabad
- Jaynagar-Mumbai
- Delhi-Agra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the men’s singles title of the Wimbledon tennis tournament recently?
- Stan Wawrinka
- Roger Federer
- Rafael Nadal
- Novak Djokovic
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
The panel headed by who among the following presented new formula to estimate poverty in India recently? As per the panel estimates three out of 10 in India are poor.
- Suresh Tendulkar
- C Rangarajan
- KC Chakrabarty
- Bimal Jalan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
Which of the following state govts has announced 12 per cent reservation in all state govt jobs and posts in public sector undertakings for candidates living below poverty line (BPL) recently?
- Mizoram
- Tripura
- Sikkim
- Nagaland
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Which of the following banks has become the biggest employer in the private banking space with more than 72,000 employees in 2013-14?
- ICICI
- HDFC
- Kotak Mahindra Bank
- Axis Bank
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
The RBI increased the cash reserve ratio (CRR) for non-scheduled urban co-operative banks (UCBs) to what per cent of their total demand and time liabilities recently? Effective Jul 12, the increase will bring them on par with scheduled primary (urban) co-operative Banks.
- 3 per cent
- 4 per cent
- 4.5 per cent
- 4.75 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
Indian Navy’s ambitious naval infrastructure project, Seabird in Karwar (Phase-II), has got environment clearance. One of the largest naval bases of India which will house warships including INS Vikramaditya, it is located in the state of
- Maharashtra
- Karnataka
- Tamil Nadu
- Gujarat
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
Name the Indian scientist who has been elected to UN entity, the Commission on the Limits of Continental Shelf (CLCS) recently?
- Rasik Ravindra
- Rajan Sivaramakrishnan
- Jayant Narlikar
- Anil Kakodkar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
Five Indian women have featured in 2014 Forbes’ 100 most powerful women in the world list. Who among the following is NOT among these five women?
- Arundhati Bhattacharya
- Chanda Kocchar
- Padamshree Warrior
- Sushma Swaraj
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been conferred with the Baileys Women’s Prize for Fiction for her novel ‘A Girl is a Halfformed Thing’ recently?
- Eimear McBride
- Donna Tartt
- Eleanor Catton
- Jhumpa Lahiri
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The Day of the Seafarer is observed across the world on
- 20 Jun
- 23 Jun
- 25 Jun
- 26 Jun
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Who among the following has won the women’s singles title of the Wimbledon tennis tournament recently?
- Petra Kvitova
- Eugenie Bouchard
- Simona Halep
- Svetlana Kuznetsova
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
With a stable and reform-oriented govt at the Centre, overseas investors have pumped in a staggering over ________into the Indian market in the first half of 2014.
- USD 18 bn
- USD 20 bn
- USD 25 bn
- USD 32 bn
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
Leading online retailer Flipkart merged which of the following online fashion retailers recently? The combined entity is eyeing 65 per cent market share in India in the online fashion segment.
- Jabong
- Myntra
- Yep Me
- Junglee
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
The World Public Service Day is observed across the globe on which of the following dates?
- Jun 20
- Jun 22
- Jun 23
- Jun 26
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
The autobiography of who among the following titled ‘Substance and Shadow’ was released recently?
- Javed Akhtar
- Dilip Kumar
- Madhuri Dixit
- Aamir Khan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
Reuven Rivlin has been elected 10th President of which of the following countries recently?
- Canada
- Israel
- Spain
- Sweden
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
337. Which of the following space agencies has built world’s first flying observatory fitted with an infrared telescope called “Stratospheric Observatory for Infrared Astronomy” (SOFIA)? This mobile observatory can stay airborne for over 12 hours.
- DLR (Germany)
- CNES (France)
- NASA (US)
- ISRO (India)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
The National Dairy Research Institute (NDRI) succeeded in cloning another female buffalo calf named Lalima recently. NDRI is situated in which of the following cities?
- Lucknow
- Ahmedabad
- Karnal
- Hyderabad
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
Which of the following countries has adopted a comprehensive anti-terror law recently, giving security forces unbridled powers, including shoot-at-sight suspects? It will remain in force for two years.
- Afghanistan
- Pakistan
- Iraq
- Syria
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
As per the recommendations of the Arvind Mayaram committee, an overseas investment equal to 10 per cent and above in a listed firm will be treated as FDI and the investments below 10 per cent will be treated as
- Foreign Public Investment
- Foreign Qualified Investment
- Foreign Preliminary Investment
- Foreign Portfolio Investment
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Who among the following has topped the Forbes list of the world’s 100 most powerful women released recently?
- Dilma Rousseff
- Melinda Gates
- Janet Yellen
- Angela Merkel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
The govt has announced the introduction of new vaccines as part of the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP). Which of the following is NOT one of them?
- Rotavirus vaccine
- Rubella vaccine
- Polio (injectable) vaccine
- An adult vaccine against Japanese encephalitis
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
The govt has re-appointed who of the following RBI Deputy Governors for a further period of two years with effect from Jul 4 2014 recently?
- HR Khan
- R Gandhi
- Anand Sinha
- Urjit R Patel
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
The Indian veteran Leander Paes and his Czech partner Radek Stepanek lost their men’s doubles semi-final in Wimbledon against which of the following pairs recently?
- Michael Llodra and Nicolas Mahut
- Vasek Pospisil and Jack Sock
- Mike and Bob Bryan
- Julien Benneteau and Edouard Roger-Vasselin
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the 240-Megawatt Uri-II Hydro Electric Project (HEP) located in which of the following states recently?
- Uttarakhand
- Himachal Pradesh
- Jammu & Kashmir
- Gujarat
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
Vishal Sikka has become the highest paid professional CEO of an Indian company with Rs 30-cr pay package. He is the current CEO of
- Wipro
- Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)
- Infosys
- Tech Mahindra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
Dadi Balsara, who died recently, was associated with which of the following leading packaged mineral water brands?
- Himalayan
- Kinley
- Bisleri
- Aquafina
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
Magnus Carlsen became the first man to hold the Chess Triple Crown by holding the World Blitz, Rapid, and Classic titles consecutively. Who among the following was the first chess player in the world to hold all three world titles in a row?
- Susan Polgar
- Antoaneta Stefanova
- Alexandra Kosteniuk
- Judit Polgar
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
The Govt accepted Mayaram panel report on definitions of FDI, FII recently. Now, a foreign investment of ________ or more in a listed company will be treated as FDI.
- 10 per cent
- 15 per cent
- 20 per cent
- 4) 25 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
The World Refugee Day is observed across the globe on which of the following dates?
- Jun 14
- Jun 16
- Jun 18
- Jun 20
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
Sheryl Sandberg, who visited India, recently, is present Chief Operating Officer of which of the following social media firms?
- Twitter
- LinkedIn
- Yahoo
- Facebook
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
NASA launched first of its kind OCO-2 satellite, recently, which is dedicated to studying
- atmospheric carbon dioxide
- depletion of ozone layer
- extent of pollution due to jet exhaust
- presence of harmful bacteria in outer space
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
The Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area has been approved for inscription on the UNESCO World Heritage list recently. It is located in
- Kullu, Himachal Pradesh
- Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
- Samba, Jammu and Kashmir
- Garhwal, Uttarakhand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
Which of the following India cricketers has been honoured with exclusive gold coin worth 12,000 pound sterling issued by Britain’s premium luxury goods brand East India Company?
- Sunil Gavaskar
- Kapil Dev
- Sachin Tendulkar
- Mahendra Singh Dhoni
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
Google’s ‘Project Loon,’ which completed its one-year anniversary, recently, is associated with which of the following?
- Bringing internet access through balloons
- Transporting people to moon
- Transporting people to mars
- Real time mobile tracking system
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The World Vitiligo Day is celebrated every year on which of the following dates?
- Jun 20
- Jun 21
- Jun 23
- Jun 25
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
Which of the following state govts has announced a 33 per cent reservation for women in state police force recently?
- Tamil Nadu
- Rajasthan
- Gujarat
- West Bengal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
The first nuclear power plant in the world was commissioned in Obninsk city in which of the following countries? The plant completed sixty years recently.
- US
- Germany
- Japan
- Russia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
France honoured which of the following Bollywood actors with ‘Officier de la Legion d’Honneur (Officer of the Legion of Honour)’, its highest distinction - civilian or military?
- Amitabh Bachchan
- Aamir Khan
- Salman Khan
- Shah Rukh Khan
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
Salar Jung Museum celebrated the 125th birth anniversary of the founder collector Salar Jung III recently. T h e museum that holds the coveted crown of being one of the largest one-man collections of the World, is located in
- Chennai
- Mangalore
- Hyderabad
- Guntur
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
A spherical balloon of radius a is charged. The energy density in the electric field at a point P shown in the figure given below is W. If the ballon is inflated to a radius b without altering its charge, what is the energy density at P?
- $w \big( \frac{b}{a} \big)^{3}$
- $w \big( \frac{b}{a} \big)^{2}$
- $w \big( \frac{b}{a} \big)$
- w
Correct

Electric energy density $W_{e}=\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon E^{2}=W$

$\overline{E}=\frac{Q}{4\pi \varepsilon R^{2}}a_{r}$ .

$E\propto \frac{1}{R^{2}}$ Where R is the distance from center of balloon to point 'P'.

Due to inflation of balloon R is not changing . Hence energy density = $W_{e}$ = W

Incorrect

Electric energy density $W_{e}=\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon E^{2}=W$

$\overline{E}=\frac{Q}{4\pi \varepsilon R^{2}}a_{r}$ .

$E\propto \frac{1}{R^{2}}$ Where R is the distance from center of balloon to point 'P'.

Due to inflation of balloon R is not changing . Hence energy density = $W_{e}$ = W
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
An Exciter is used for
- voltage control
- power control
- over voltage protection
- over current protection
Correct

Incorrect
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
What is the driving point operational impedance of the network given below?
- $\frac{2s+1}{3s+2}$
- $\frac{s+1}{2s+2}$
- $\frac{s}{3s+2}$
- $\frac{s+2}{3s+2}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
The deflection of hot wire instrument depends on
- RMS value of alternating current
- voltage
- average value of AC current
- Instantaneous value of AC current
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
For the circuit shown below, what is the value I?
- 10 A
- 6 A
- 3.7 A
- 3 A
Correct

Apply superposition theorem
Current I1, circuit is due to voltage source only.

$I_{1}=\frac{10}{5+1}$

Current I2 is due to current source only

By using current divider rule

$I_{2}=\frac{8\times 1}{5+1}$

Hence, Total current I = $I_{1}+I_{2}$

$I_{1}+I_{2}=\frac{10}{6}+\frac{8}{6}$ = 3 A

Incorrect

Apply superposition theorem
Current I1, circuit is due to voltage source only.

$I_{1}=\frac{10}{5+1}$

Current I2 is due to current source only

By using current divider rule

$I_{2}=\frac{8\times 1}{5+1}$

Hence, Total current I = $I_{1}+I_{2}$

$I_{1}+I_{2}=\frac{10}{6}+\frac{8}{6}$ = 3 A
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
The electric current is the flow of
- positive charges only
- both positive and negative charges
- negative charges only
- neutral particles only
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
A wire having very high value of conductance is said to be
- very good conductor
- insulator
- moderately good conductor
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
The basic function of a rectifier is to
- change the level of a d.c. voltage
- convert d.c. into a.c.
- change frequency of a d.c. voltage
- convert a.c. into d.c.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
The unit of magnetic force is
- Henry/meter
- Weber/meter
- Ampere/meter
- Joule/weberJoule/weber
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
What is the range of K for which the open loop transfer function G(s) = $\frac{K}{s^{2}(s+1)}$ represents an unstable closed loop system.
- K > 0 only (2)
- K = 0 only
- K < 0 only (4)
- $- \infty <K< \infty$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the
- Amount of flux cut
- Amount of flux linkages
- Rate of change of flux-linkages
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
The electrons in the last orbit of an atom are called
- (1) free electrons
- bound electrons
- valence electrons
- thermionic electron
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
One coulomb of charge is equal to
- $625 \times 10^{16}$ electrons
- $62.5 \times 10^{19}$ electrons
- $6.25 \times 10^{18}$ electrons
- $.625 \times 10^{16}$ electrons
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
The mass of a proton is _____the mass of electron
- equal to
- less than
- 2 times
- 1837 times
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
1 cm of copper at room temperature has about
- 1000 free electrons
- 10000 free electrons
- $8.5 \times 10^{22}$ free electrons
- $16 \times 10^{34}$ free electrons
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
The energy stored in a capacitor as a function of voltage (V) is given by
- $CV^{2}$
- $\frac{1}{2} CV^{2}$
- $\frac{1}{2}CV^{2}$
- None f these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
The errors introduced by an instrument fall is which category?
- Systematic errors
- Random errors
- Gross errors
- Environmental errors
Correct

Systematic Error are divided in to three categories of Instrument Errors such arise due to three main reason:
1. It is due to inherent shortcomings in an instrument.
2. It is due to misuse of an instruments.
3. It is due to loading effect of an instruments.

Incorrect

Systematic Error are divided in to three categories of Instrument Errors such arise due to three main reason:
1. It is due to inherent shortcomings in an instrument.
2. It is due to misuse of an instruments.
3. It is due to loading effect of an instruments.
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
When the emitter current of a transistor is changed by 1 mA, its collector current changes by 0.995 mA. The value of ‘a’ will be
- 0.005
- 1.11
- 0.995
- 0.99
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
Image orthicon is based on
- Photo emission principle
- Photo conduction principle
- Either of the two
- Neither of the two
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
Which of the following materials has the lowest resistivity?
- Copper
- Gold
- Aluminum
- Silver
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
The unit of magneto motive force is
- Weber
- Tesla
- AT
- Reluctance
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
One Maxwell is equal to:
- $10^{8}$ wb
- $10^{-8}$ wb
- $10^{-8}$ wb
- $10^{3}$ wb
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
One calorie is equal to:
- 10 J
- 2.09 J
- 4.18 J
- 6.9 J
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
The resistance of an appliance is 10Ω. What additional resistance must be placed in series to limit the current to 3 amp at 240 V?
- 30Ω
- 80Ω
- 70Ω
- 100Ω
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
Switch should be connected to
- Neutral wire
- Phase wire
- Earth wire
- Half wire
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
Which one of the following mode has the highest cut off wavelength in a rectangular wave guide?
- $TE_{10}$
- $TE_{01}$
- $TM_{01}$
- $TM_{11}$
Correct

TE10 has lowest cutoff frequency hence highest wave length.

Incorrect

TE10 has lowest cutoff frequency hence highest wave length.
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
E.M.F in a circuit
- increases circuit resistance
- decreases circuit resistance
- maintains potential difference
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
What is the equivalent resistance between the terminals A and B?
- 50Ω
- 40Ω
- 20Ω
- 10Ω
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less than 4, the substance is usually
- a conductor
- an insulator
- a semiconductor
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
In the figure the inductance of coil 1 is
- 5H
- 10H
- 15H
- 2H
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
The transient stability power system can be effectively improved by
- excitation control
- phase shifting transformer
- single pole switching C.B
- increasing the turbine
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
One kilowatt hour is equal to
- 36 $\times$ 10 joules
- $36\times 10^{3}$ joules
- $36\times 10^{2 }$ joules
- $36\times 10^{-3}$ joules
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
The force between electrons separated by a distance ‘r’ varies as
- $r^{2}$
- r
- $r^{-2}$
- $r^{-1}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
A magnetic material having high retentivity and high coercivity is most suited for making
- electromagnets
- armatures
- permanent magnets
- transformer cores
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
What is the time constant of re circuit below?
- 0.5 s
- 1 s
- 2 s
- 4 s
Correct

The time constant of circuit is CR where R is the resistance across C. When voltage source short circuit.
R = 2 || 2 = 1
Time content = CR = 1 $\times$ 1 = 1s

Incorrect

The time constant of circuit is CR where R is the resistance across C. When voltage source short circuit.
R = 2 || 2 = 1
Time content = CR = 1 $\times$ 1 = 1s
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
The function of a starter in d.c. motor is to
- Control the speed
- Increase the speed
- Limiting the speed
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
Time delay relays is employed:
- For automatic sequence control
- For automatic star-delta starting
- For traffic signalling
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
The relative permittivity of air is
- 0
- 1
- $8.854 \times 10^{-12}$
- Infinity
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
The relative permittivity is
- dielectric constant
- dielectric strength
- potential gradient
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
The relative permittivity of a material is 5. Its absolute permittivity will be
- $44.270 \times 10^{-12}$ F/m
- Zero
- 1
- 100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
When the relative permittivity of the medium is increased, the force between two charges placed at a given distance apart
- increases
- remains the same
- decreases
- zero
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
An N-type semiconductor as a whole is
- Electrically neutral
- Positively charged
- Negatively charged
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
In a certain transistor a change in emitter current of 1mA produces a change in collector current of 0.99 mA. The short circuit gain of the transistor will be
- 1.1
- 0.99
- 0.67
- 1.33
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
The dominant mode in circular waveguide is
- TE11
- TM01
- TE01
- TM11
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
Inductance is measured by which one of the following?
- Wien bridge
- Schering bridge
- Maxwell bridge
- Owen bridge
Correct

Maxwell’s Inductance-Capacitance Bridge

In this bridge, an inductance is measured by comparison with a standard variable capacitance.

$R_{1}=\frac{R_{2}R_{3}}{R_{4}}$ and $L_{1}=R_{2},R_{3},R_{4}$

Incorrect

Maxwell’s Inductance-Capacitance Bridge

In this bridge, an inductance is measured by comparison with a standard variable capacitance.

$R_{1}=\frac{R_{2}R_{3}}{R_{4}}$ and $L_{1}=R_{2},R_{3},R_{4}$
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
The starting torque of 1 φ induction motor is
- High
- Moderate
- Low
- Zero
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
A universal motor is
- a 1 φ a.c. motor
- a d.c. motor
- both a.c. and d.c.
- a 3 φ a.c. motor
Correct

Incorrect
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
Darlington pair consists of following two stages
- CE and CC
- Both CE
- Both CC
- CE and CB
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
N - channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs because:
- They have high input impedance
- They have high switching time
- They consume less power
- Mobility of electrons is greater than holes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
The loss angle in a capacitor should be
- As small as possible
- Zero
- Exactly 90°
- As high as possible
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
Siemens is a unit for measuring
- Conductance
- Resistance
- Flux density
- Electric field
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
An electric field can deflect
- Neutrons
- y - rays
- a - particles
- X - rays
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
If current in an electric bulb drops by 2% then power decreases by
- 4%
- 2%
- 8%
- 1%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
A bulb rated at 1000W, 220V is connected to 110V. Power consumed is
- 1000W
- 250W
- 500W
- 125W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
Three identical resistances A, B and C are connected to a battery as shown in figure. The heat produced is
Figure
- Maximum in A
- Maximum in B
- Maximum in A, B and C
- Maximum in parallel combination of B and C
Correct

Incorrect
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
Three identical resistances A, B and C are connected to a battery as shown in figure. The heat produced is
- Maximum in A
- Maximum in B
- Maximum in A, B and C
- Maximum in parallel combination of B and C
Correct

Incorrect
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
Two identical heaters, each marked 2000W, 250V are placed in series and then connected to 250 volt supply, their combined rate of heating is
- 4000W
- 1000W
- 2000W
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
One H.P is equal to
- 7.46W
- 746 W
- 74.6W
- 0.746W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
In the circuit, the battery has negligible internal resistance. The power supplied by the battery is
- 22.5W
- 3
- 4.25W
- 4.0W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
Both silicon and Germanium are
- Trivalant material
- bivalant material
- monovalant material
- tetra valant material
Correct

Incorrect
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
Two charges 4µC and 7µC are placed 4.5 cm. apart. What is the electric potential energy of the System?
- $5.6\times 10^{3}$ J
- 124444.4J
- 134444.4 J
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
Out of the material given below, which has the highest dielectric strength?
- air
- glass
- oiled paper
- mica
Correct

Incorrect
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
E.M.F. incuded in a straight conductor is given as
- e = BlV
- e = BL $V^{2}$
- e = $B_{2}$ LV
- e = B $l_{2}$ V
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
An average power in an a.c. circuit is given by
- $V_{rms}\: I_{rms}\: \cos \Phi$
- $V_{0}\times I_{0}\cos \Phi$
- $\frac{V_{0}I_{0}}{2}$
- $V_{avg}I_{avg}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
The power in single phase a.c. circuit is
- VI Sinφ
- V I Cosφ
- $I^{2}\times$ 2
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
A 500 kVA, 3-phase transformer has iron losses of 300W and full load copper losses of 600W. The percentage load at which the transformer is expected to have maximum efficiency is
- 50.0%
- 70.7%
- 141.4%
- 200.0%
Correct

Copper loss at any load

$P_{Cu}=x^{2}\times$ [Full load copper loss]

Where x = fraction of load

Maximum occurs when

Copper loss = Iron loss

$x^{2}\times P_{n,Cu}$

$\Rightarrow x^{2}\times 600$ = 300

x = 0.707 = 70 . 7%

Incorrect

Copper loss at any load

$P_{Cu}=x^{2}\times$ [Full load copper loss]

Where x = fraction of load

Maximum occurs when

Copper loss = Iron loss

$x^{2}\times P_{n,Cu}$

$\Rightarrow x^{2}\times 600$ = 300

x = 0.707 = 70 . 7%
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
A three-phase alternator generating unbalanced voltages is connected to an unbalanced load through a 3-phase transmission line as shown in figure. The neutral of the alternator and the star point of the load are solidly grounded. The phase voltages to the alternator are $E_{a}=10\angle 0^{\circ}$ V , $E_{a}=10\angle 0^{\circ}$ V , $E_{c}=120\angle 0^{\circ}$ V . The positive - sequence component of the load current is
- 1.310 $\angle -107^{\circ}$ A
- 0.332 $\angle -120^{\circ}$ A
- 0.996 $\angle -120^{\circ}$ A
- 3.510 $\angle -81^{\circ}$ A
Correct

Since both sides are grounded, we can take it as 3 independent circuit

$I_{a}=\frac{E_{a}}{Z_{a}}=\frac{10\angle 0^{\circ}}{2J}=-5JA$

$I_{c}=\frac{E_{c}}{Z_{c}}=\frac{10\angle 120^{\circ}}{4J}=2.5\angle 30^{\circ}$ A

$I_{a1}=\frac{1}{3}(I_{a}+\alpha I_{b}+\alpha ^{2}I_{c})$

= $I_{a1}=\frac{1}{3}(I_{a}+\alpha I_{b}+\alpha ^{2}I_{c})$

$\frac{1}{3}[5\angle -90+3.33\angle (-180+120)+2.5\angle(240+30)]$

$\frac{1}{3}[5\angle 90+3.33\angle -60+2.5\angle270]$ = 3.510 $\angle -81^{\circ}$

Incorrect

Since both sides are grounded, we can take it as 3 independent circuit

$I_{a}=\frac{E_{a}}{Z_{a}}=\frac{10\angle 0^{\circ}}{2J}=-5JA$

$I_{c}=\frac{E_{c}}{Z_{c}}=\frac{10\angle 120^{\circ}}{4J}=2.5\angle 30^{\circ}$ A

$I_{a1}=\frac{1}{3}(I_{a}+\alpha I_{b}+\alpha ^{2}I_{c})$

= $I_{a1}=\frac{1}{3}(I_{a}+\alpha I_{b}+\alpha ^{2}I_{c})$

$\frac{1}{3}[5\angle -90+3.33\angle (-180+120)+2.5\angle(240+30)]$

$\frac{1}{3}[5\angle 90+3.33\angle -60+2.5\angle270]$ = 3.510 $\angle -81^{\circ}$
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
The rated voltage of a 3-phase power system is given as
- rms phase voltage
- peak phase voltage
- rms line to line voltage
- peak line to line voltage
Correct

Generators are specified in 3-ΦMVA, line to line voltage and per-phase reactance (equivalent star). Transformers are specified in 3-ΦMVA, line to line transformation ratio and per phase (equivalent star) impedance on one side. Load are specified in 3-ΦMW, line to line voltage and power factor.

Incorrect

Generators are specified in 3-ΦMVA, line to line voltage and per-phase reactance (equivalent star). Transformers are specified in 3-ΦMVA, line to line transformation ratio and per phase (equivalent star) impedance on one side. Load are specified in 3-ΦMW, line to line voltage and power factor.
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
A moving coil of a meter has 100 turns, and a length and depth of 10 mm and 20 mm respectively. It is positioned in a uniform radial flux density of 200 mT. The coil carrier a current of 50mA. The torque on the coil is
- 200 µNm
- 100µNm
- µNm
- 1µNm
Correct

Torque on the coil = NBAI

Where

N = No of turns = 100

B = Flux density

= 200 mT = $200\times 10^{-3}$ T

A = Area of the coil = length $\times$ depth

$(10\times 10^{-3})\times (20\times 10^{-3})$ T

= $200\times 10^{-6}m^{2}$

I = Current through the coil = 50 mA = $50\times 10^{-3}$

T = NBAI

= $100\times (200\times 10^{-3})\times (200\times 10^{-6})\times (50\times 10^{-3})$

= $2\times 10^{-4}N-m=200\mu N-m$

Incorrect

Torque on the coil = NBAI

Where

N = No of turns = 100

B = Flux density

= 200 mT = $200\times 10^{-3}$ T

A = Area of the coil = length $\times$ depth

$(10\times 10^{-3})\times (20\times 10^{-3})$ T

= $200\times 10^{-6}m^{2}$

I = Current through the coil = 50 mA = $50\times 10^{-3}$

T = NBAI

= $100\times (200\times 10^{-3})\times (200\times 10^{-6})\times (50\times 10^{-3})$

= $2\times 10^{-4}N-m=200\mu N-m$
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
boolean expression
$\bar{X}Y\bar{Z}+\overline{XY}Z+XY\overline{Z}+X\overline{Y}Z+XYZ$

can be simplified to
- $X\overline{Z}+\overline{X}Z+YZ$
- $XZ+\overline{Y}Z+Y\overline{Z}$
- $\overline{X}Y+YZ+XZ$
- $\overline{XY}+Y\overline{Z}+\overline{X}Z$
Correct

By K-map

The simplified form is

$XY+Y\overline{Z}+\overline{Y}Z$

Incorrect

By K-map

The simplified form is

$XY+Y\overline{Z}+\overline{Y}Z$
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
A memory system has a total of 8 memory chips, each with 12 address lines and 4 data lines. The total size of the memory system is
- 16 kbytes
- 32 kbytes
- 48 kbytes
- 64 kbytes
Correct

Total size of the memory

= n $\times$ D $\times$ 2A = 4 $\times$ 8 $\times$ 212

= 128 Kbits = 16 K byte

Incorrect

Total size of the memory

= n $\times$ D $\times$ 2A = 4 $\times$ 8 $\times$ 212

= 128 Kbits = 16 K byte
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
The inductance of a long solenoid of length 1000 mm wound uniformly with 3000 turns on a cylindrical paper tube of 60 mm diameter is
- 3.2µH
- 3.2 mH
- 32.0 mH
- 3.2 H
Correct

Let B = µ0nI

Then Φ = B.S = µ0 n SI

Where ‘S’ is the cross sectional area of solenoid

Flux linkage a’ = nΦ = $\mu{0}n^{2}$ SI

Hence inductance / length = $\mu _{0}n^{2}$ S

For l= 1000 mm = 1m

$\therefore L=4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 3000^{2}\times \pi \times (30\times 10^{-3})^{2}$

32 mH

Incorrect

Let B = µ0nI

Then Φ = B.S = µ0 n SI

Where ‘S’ is the cross sectional area of solenoid

Flux linkage a’ = nΦ = $\mu{0}n^{2}$ SI

Hence inductance / length = $\mu _{0}n^{2}$ S

For l= 1000 mm = 1m

$\therefore L=4\pi \times 10^{-7}\times 3000^{2}\times \pi \times (30\times 10^{-3})^{2}$

32 mH
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
With reference to the output waveform given in figure output of the converter will be free form 5th harmonic when
- α = 72°
- α = 36°
- α = 150°
- α = 120°
Correct

To eliminate 5th harmonic,

5d = 0 , $\pi ,2\pi \Rightarrow d=0,\frac{\pi}{5},\frac{2\pi}{5}$

$\therefore$ Pulse width = 2d = $\alpha$

= 0 , $\frac{2\pi}{5},\frac{4\pi}=(0^{\circ}=72^{\circ},144^{\circ})$

Incorrect

To eliminate 5th harmonic,

5d = 0 , $\pi ,2\pi \Rightarrow d=0,\frac{\pi}{5},\frac{2\pi}{5}$

$\therefore$ Pulse width = 2d = $\alpha$

= 0 , $\frac{2\pi}{5},\frac{4\pi}=(0^{\circ}=72^{\circ},144^{\circ})$
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
The solution of the first order differential equation

x(t) = -3x(t) , x(o) = $x_{0}$ is
- $\oint _{t}\overline{B}.\overline{dl}$ = 0
- $\oint _{t}\overline{B}.\overline{dl}$ = 0
- $\overline{V}\times \overline{B}=0$
- $\overline{V}\cdot \overline{B}=0$
Correct

x(t) = -3x(t)

i.e = $\frac{\mathrm{d} x}{\mathrm{d} t}=-3x$

$\frac{\mathrm{d} x}{x}=-3dt$

$\int \frac{\mathrm{d} x}{x}=\int -3dt$

$\Rightarrow \ln x=-3t+C$

$\Rightarrow x=e^{-3t+c}=e^{c}\times e^{-3t}$

Putting

$e^{c}=C_{1}$

x = $C_{1}\times e^{-3t}$

Now Putting initial Condition

x(0) = $x_{0}$

$x_{o}=C_{1}e^{0}=C_{1}$

$C_{1}=x_{0}$

$\therefore$ solution is x = $x_{0}e^{-3t}$

i.e x(t) = $x_{0}e^{-3t}$

Incorrect

x(t) = -3x(t)

i.e = $\frac{\mathrm{d} x}{\mathrm{d} t}=-3x$

$\frac{\mathrm{d} x}{x}=-3dt$

$\int \frac{\mathrm{d} x}{x}=\int -3dt$

$\Rightarrow \ln x=-3t+C$

$\Rightarrow x=e^{-3t+c}=e^{c}\times e^{-3t}$

Putting

$e^{c}=C_{1}$

x = $C_{1}\times e^{-3t}$

Now Putting initial Condition

x(0) = $x_{0}$

$x_{o}=C_{1}e^{0}=C_{1}$

$C_{1}=x_{0}$

$\therefore$ solution is x = $x_{0}e^{-3t}$

i.e x(t) = $x_{0}e^{-3t}$
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
The forbidden energy gap in silicon at 300 K is
- 41 e V
- 1.1 e V
- 0.785 e V
- 0.72 e V
Correct

$\oint _{S}\overline{B}.d\bar{s}=0$

$\Rightarrow \oint _{S}\overline{B}.d\bar{s}=\oint (\triangledown\cdot B)dv$

For Solenoid field , $\bigtriangledown \cdot B=0$

Then $\oint _{S}=\overline{B}\cdot \overline{ds}=0$

This is due to (nonexistence of monopole)

Incorrect

$\oint _{S}\overline{B}.d\bar{s}=0$

$\Rightarrow \oint _{S}\overline{B}.d\bar{s}=\oint (\triangledown\cdot B)dv$

For Solenoid field , $\bigtriangledown \cdot B=0$

Then $\oint _{S}=\overline{B}\cdot \overline{ds}=0$

This is due to (nonexistence of monopole)
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
If the combined generator and line Impedance is (5 + j 10) ohm, then for the maximum power transfer to a load impedance from a generator of constant generated voltage, the load impedance is given by which one of the following.
- (5 + J10) $\Omega$
- (5 - J10) $\Omega$
- (5 + J5) $\Omega$
- 5 $\Omega$
Correct

For SI ,

$E_{c}=1.21-3.60\times 10^{-4}T$

At $300^{\circ}K$

$E_{c}$ = 1.21 - 0.108 = 1.1ev

Incorrect

For SI ,

$E_{c}=1.21-3.60\times 10^{-4}T$

At $300^{\circ}K$

$E_{c}$ = 1.21 - 0.108 = 1.1ev
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Early effect in BJT refers to:
- Avalanche breakdown
- Thermal runaway
- Base narrowing
- Zener breakdown
Correct

For maximum power transfer, load impedance is equal to complex conjugate of source impedance.

$Z_{L}=Z_{g}$

Incorrect

For maximum power transfer, load impedance is equal to complex conjugate of source impedance.

$Z_{L}=Z_{g}$
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number 2A OF is
- 17670
- 17607
- 17067
- 10767
Correct

Early Effect/Base width modulation.
For active region operation of transistor collector base region is reversed biased. Due to re-verse bias the depletion width in base region increases which causes effective width of base to decrease. This effect is known as early effect. If the reverse bias VCB is increased beyond a point, breakdown may occur as width of base becomes zero and phenomena is called punch through.

Incorrect

Early Effect/Base width modulation.
For active region operation of transistor collector base region is reversed biased. Due to re-verse bias the depletion width in base region increases which causes effective width of base to decrease. This effect is known as early effect. If the reverse bias VCB is increased beyond a point, breakdown may occur as width of base becomes zero and phenomena is called punch through.
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number 2A OF is
- 17670
- 17607
- 17067
- 10767
Correct

$(2ACF)_{H}=2\times 16^{3}\times 10\times 16^{2}+15\times 16^{0}$

$(2ACF)_{H}=2\times 4096\times 10\times 256+12\times 16+15\times 1$

= 8192 + 2560 + 192 + 15 = 10767

Incorrect

$(2ACF)_{H}=2\times 16^{3}\times 10\times 16^{2}+15\times 16^{0}$

$(2ACF)_{H}=2\times 4096\times 10\times 256+12\times 16+15\times 1$

= 8192 + 2560 + 192 + 15 = 10767
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
An FM wave uses a 2-5V, 500 Hz modulating frequency and has a modulation index of 50. The deviation is
- 500 Hz
- 1000 Hz
- 1250 Hz
- 25000 Hz
Correct

Modulation index = $\beta =\frac{\Delta f}{fm}$

$\Rightarrow \Delta f=50\times 500$

Incorrect

Modulation index = $\beta =\frac{\Delta f}{fm}$

$\Rightarrow \Delta f=50\times 500$
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The UHF TV channels range from
- 2 to 13
- 14 to 83
- 2 to 6
- 1 to 13
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
Satellite communication links are preferred over submarines tables because
- Of their multiple access ability
- They are faster
- They are slower
- Direct broadcast satellite
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
For commercial TV application the zoom range is
- 10 : 1
- 5 : 1
- 20 : 1
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
Approximate value of target voltage in a standard vidicon is
- 300 V
- 30 V to 40 V
- Equal to anode voltage
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
A transformer transforms
- frequency
- voltage
- current
- voltage and current
Correct

Incorrect
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
When a monochrome receiver is fed with a colour signal, the primary colour that produces brightest shade of grey is
- Green
- Red
- Blue
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
The marked increase in kVA capacity produced by connecting a 2 winding transformer as an autotransformer is due to
- increase in turn ratio
- increase in secondary voltage
- increase in transformer efficiency
- establishment of conductive link between primary and secondary.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
The commonly used multiple access technique that has very stringent timing and synchronising requirements for the earth station is the
- CDMA
- TDMA
- FDMA
- both (1) and (2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
Geostatianary satellites are generally placed in
- Equatorial orbit
- polar orbit
- Inclined orbit
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
The signaling channel consist of
- Order wire channel
- Management channel
- Transmit timing channel
- All of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
The overall noise temperature Te, absolute temperature T and noise figure F are related as
- Te = T (F-1)
- Te = F (T- 1)
- T = Te (F- 1)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
A high f-number is used
- When the scene has high light level
- When the scene has low light level
- When the depth of field improvement is not the consideration
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
The critical resistance of the d.c. generator is the resistance of
- armature
- field
- load
- brushes
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
The primary reason for making the coil span of a d.c. armature equal to a pole pitch is to
- obtain a coil span of 180° (electrical)
- ensure the addition of e.m.fs. of consecutive turns
- distribute the winding uniformly under different poles
- obtain a full-pitch winding
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
Transformers are rated in kVA instead of kW because
- load power factor is often not known
- kVA is fixed whereas kW depends on load p.f.
- total transformer loss depends on voltampere
- it has become customary.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
Video programmes sent on CATV are in the form of
- Video base band signals
- AMVSB modulation
- FM modulation
- Unmodulated carrier
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Out of the following given choices for poly phase transformer connections which one will you select for three-to-two phase conversion?
- Scott
- star/star
- duble Scott
- star/double-delta
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed accidentally, it may be restored by connecting its shunt field
- to earth
- to an a.c. source
- in reverse
- to a d.c. source
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
Scrambling of cable TV signal requires
- Reversal of CVS
- Quantization of video signal
- Removal of sync pulses from CVS
- Removal of audio signals from CVS
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
A control system has a transfer function
$\frac{K(1+0.5s)(1+2s+5s^{2})}{s^{2}(1+s)(1+5s+10s^{2})(1+100s+500s^{2})}$
What is the type of the system?
- 0
- I
- II
- III
Correct

2 poles at origin.
Hence system is type-II.

Incorrect

2 poles at origin.
Hence system is type-II.

Please comment on Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 3 - Time 2 Hours

3 Comments

SANAPATHI jagadeesh on July 29, 2019 at 3:05 am

Some ans are wrong or justification wrong
Ex 126 question
Reply
- admin on July 29, 2019 at 10:41 am
  
  Thanks for the suggestion,
  
  We have checked and also updated the Paper.
  Reply
Uday Kumar Biradar on March 1, 2019 at 10:51 pm

Dear Team,

Hereby I am requesting you to , Please share with me old Junior Engineer Electrical Question papers.

Thanks in advance
Uday
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