Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 1 - Time 2 Hours

Subject	Question No.
Reasoning	1 -50
General Awareness	51 - 100
Electrical - Technical	101 - 200

Time Limit - 2 Hours

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Question 1 of 200

1. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
- Black
- Yellow
- Red
- Green
- Violet
Correct

Except 'black' all are the colour of the rainbow.

Incorrect

Except 'black' all are the colour of the rainbow.
Question 2 of 200

2. Question
1 points
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREIGN each of which has as may letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 3 of 200

3. Question
1 points
Each vowel in the word JOURNEY is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet and each consonant is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, then the substituted letters are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the fifth from the left end ?
- D
- K
- O
- T
- None of these
Correct

JOURNEY

According to question, after arrangement : KNTSODZ

Alphabetically : DKNOSTZ

Fifth letter from the left end = S

Incorrect

JOURNEY

According to question, after arrangement : KNTSODZ

Alphabetically : DKNOSTZ

Fifth letter from the left end = S
Question 4 of 200

4. Question
1 points
How many such digits are there in the number 5846937 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 5 of 200

5. Question
1 points
In a certain language, 'food is good' is written as 'ho na ta', 'eat food regularly' is written as 'sa ta la' and 'keep good health' is written as 'da na ja'. How is 'eat' written in that code language ?
- sa
- la
- sa or la
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 6 of 200

6. Question
1 points
In a row of thirty boys, R is fourth from the right end and W is tenth from the left end. How many boys are there between R and W ?
- 15
- 16
- 17
- Cannot be determined
- None of the above
Correct

Number of children between R and W = 30 - (4+10)=16

Incorrect

Number of children between R and W = 30 - (4+10)=16
Question 7 of 200

7. Question
1 points
Among A, B, C, D and E each having a different weight, D is heaving than A and E and B is lighter than C. Who among them is the heaviest ?
- D
- B
- C
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

D is heaving than A and E and B is lighter than C.

So, comparison is not possible among A, B, C, D and E.

Incorrect

D is heaving than A and E and B is lighter than C.

So, comparison is not possible among A, B, C, D and E.
Question 8 of 200

8. Question
1 points
In a certain code, CORDIAL is written as 'SPDCMBJ'. How is SOMEDAY written in that code ?
- NPTDEBZ
- NPTFZBE
- TPNDZBE
- NPTDZBE
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 9 of 200

9. Question
1 points
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EMLI using each letter only once in each word ?
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
- More than four
Correct

Two meaningful words can be made.

MILE, LIME

Incorrect

Two meaningful words can be made.

MILE, LIME
Question 10 of 200

10. Question
1 points
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
- 45
- 51
- 39
- 93
- 85
Correct

Apart from 85 all are divisible by 3.

Incorrect

Apart from 85 all are divisible by 3.
Question 11 of 200

11. Question
1 points
What should came next in the following letter series ?

A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
- U
- T
- A
- G
- None of these
Correct

Letter series will be formed as follows

AZ, ABY, ABCX, ABCDW, ABCDEV, ABCDE F U

Incorrect

Letter series will be formed as follows

AZ, ABY, ABCX, ABCDW, ABCDEV, ABCDE F U
Question 12 of 200

12. Question
1 points
If 'p' denotes 'multiplied by' ; 'R' denotes 'added to' ; "T" denotes 'subtracted from' and "W" denotes 'divided by', then

6 4 W 4 P 8 T 6 R 4 = ?
- 96
- $2\frac{2}{3}$
- 130
- 126
- None of these
Correct

$64\div 4\times 8-6\div 4=?$

?= $16\times 8-6+4$

? = 128 - 6 + 4

? = 126

Incorrect

$64\div 4\times 8-6\div 4=?$

?= $16\times 8-6+4$

? = 128 - 6 + 4

? = 126
Question 13 of 200

13. Question
1 points
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the sixth, the eighth and the ninth letters of the word HOARDINGS, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give 'X' as the answered and if more than one such word can be made, give 'Y' as the answer.
- G
- I
- S
- X
- Y
Correct

Letter : H I G S

Meaningful word : S I G H

So, the third letter is G.

Incorrect

Letter : H I G S

Meaningful word : S I G H

So, the third letter is G.
Question 14 of 200

14. Question
1 points
In a certain code DOES is written as '5$3%' and SITE is written as '%4$#3'. How is EDIT written in that code ?
- 354#
- 3#54
- 3$4#
- 35$#
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 15 of 200

15. Question
1 points
D is brother of B. M is brother of B. k is father of M. T is wife of K. How is B related to T ?
- Son
- Daughter
- Son or daughter
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 16 of 200

16. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
- 5 N I
- 9 U $
- H A $\bigstar$
- 7 G #
- D P T
Correct

Incorrect
Question 17 of 200

17. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- Four
Correct

Incorrect
Question 18 of 200

18. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

Which of the following is the fifth to the left of the eighteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
- %
- A
- D
- 3
- None of these
Correct

= 18 -5 = 13 = P

Incorrect

= 18 -5 = 13 = P
Question 19 of 200

19. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end ?
- 4
- 3
- 9
- F
- None of these
Correct

B 2 M E J R 5 N D I P 4 T 3 9 F U 1 6 H J A 7 G Q

So, twelfth from the right end = 3

Incorrect

B 2 M E J R 5 N D I P 4 T 3 9 F U 1 6 H J A 7 G Q

So, twelfth from the right end = 3
Question 20 of 200

20. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter ?
- None
- One
- Two
- Three
- More than three
Correct

Incorrect
Question 21 of 200

21. Question
1 points
Study the following arrangement carefully answer the questions given below.

B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P 4 © T 3 9 F U 1 $ 6 H J A 7 $\bigstar$ G Q #

Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement ?
- D
- @
- 1
- 6
- None of these
Correct

9th to the right of 20th from the right = 20 - 9 =11th from right

= 1

Incorrect

9th to the right of 20th from the right = 20 - 9 =11th from right

= 1
Question 22 of 200

22. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements All windows are doors. All buildings are doors. All doors are boats.
Conclusions
I. All windows are boats.
II. All buildings are boats.
III. Some boats are boats.
- Only I and II follow
- Only I and III follow
- Only II and III follow
- All follow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 23 of 200

23. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements some desks are chairs. Some chairs are pens. Some pens are drawers.
Conclusions
I. Some drawers are desks.
II. Some drawers are chairs.
III. No drawers is chair.
- None follows
- Only II follows
- only III follows
- only either II or III follows
- only I and either II or III follow
Correct

Incorrect
Question 24 of 200

24. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statement All flowers are trees. Some trees are houses. All houses are wheels.
conclusions
I. Some wheels are trees.
II. Some trees are flowers.
III. Some wheels are flowers.
- Only I and II follow
- Only I and III follow
- Only II and III follow
- All I, II and III follow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 25 of 200

25. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements Some radios are telephones. All telephones are mirrors. All mirrors are desks.
Conclusions
I. Some radios are desks.
II. Some radios are telephones.
III. Some wheels are flowers.
- Only I and II follow
- Only I and III follow
- Only II and III follow
- All the follow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 26 of 200

26. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements All furnitures are jungles. No jungle is road. Some roads are hills.
Conclusions
I. Some roads are furnitures.
II. Some jungles are furnitures.
III. Some hills are jungles.
- Only I follows
- Only II follows
- Only III follow
- Only I and II follow
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 27 of 200

27. Question
1 points
In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements All bricks are stones. Some stones are rocks. All rocks are mountains.
Conclusions
I. Some mountains are stones.
II. Some mountains are bricks.
III. Some stones are bricks.
- Only I follows
- Only III follows
- Only I and III follows
- All follows
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 28 of 200

28. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Statements H © W, W % R, R @ F
Conclusions I. R © H
II. R @ H
- if only conclusions I is true
- if only conclusion II is true
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true.
Correct

# $\Rightarrow \geq$
% $\Rightarrow \leq$
@ $\Rightarrow >$
$ $\Rightarrow <$ © $\Rightarrow =$ H=W,W $\leq$ R,R>F
From statements (I) and (II),
R $\geq$ W,H= or R $\geq$ H
So, either (I) or (II) follows.

Incorrect

# $\Rightarrow \geq$
% $\Rightarrow \leq$
@ $\Rightarrow >$
$ $\Rightarrow <$ © $\Rightarrow =$ H=W,W $\leq$ R,R>F
From statements (I) and (II),
R $\geq$ W,H= or R $\geq$ H
So, either (I) or (II) follows.
Question 29 of 200

29. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.
Statements M $ T, T @ K, K © D
Conclusions I. D $ T
II. K $ M
- if only conclusion I is true
- if only conclusion II is true
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true
Correct

M < T, T > K, K = D
From statements (I) and (II),
T >K = D or D < T
So, I is true.
So, the relation cannot be established between K and M.

Incorrect

M < T, T > K, K = D
From statements (I) and (II),
T >K = D or D < T
So, I is true.
So, the relation cannot be established between K and M.
Question 30 of 200

30. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Statements R % N, N # F, F @ B
Conclusions I. F © R
II. B $ N
- if only conclusion I is true
- if only conclusion II is true
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true.
Correct

R $\leq$ N, N $\geq$ F, F > B
Relationship cannot be established between F and R.
So, (I) is not true.
From statements (II) and (III).
N $\geq$ F > B
or B < N So, conclusion (II) is true.

Incorrect

R $\leq$ N, N $\geq$ F, F > B
Relationship cannot be established between F and R.
So, (I) is not true.
From statements (II) and (III).
N $\geq$ F > B
or B < N So, conclusion (II) is true.
Question 31 of 200

31. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Statements H @ W, W $ M, M # K
Conclusions I. K $ W
II. H @ M
- if only conclusion I is true
- if only conclusion II is true
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true
Correct

H > W, W < M, M $\geq$ K

H > W < M $\geq$ K

K $ W $\Rightarrow K<W\Rightarrow$ False

H @ M $\Rightarrow H>M\Rightarrow$ False

Both (I) and (II) are not true.

Incorrect

H > W, W < M, M $\geq$ K

H > W < M $\geq$ K

K $ W $\Rightarrow K<W\Rightarrow$ False

H @ M $\Rightarrow H>M\Rightarrow$ False

Both (I) and (II) are not true.
Question 32 of 200

32. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Statements R # T, T © M, M @ D
Conclusions I. D $ T
II. R # M
- if only conclusion I is true
- if only conclusion II is true
- if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true
Correct

R $\geq$ T, T = M, M > D
From above all three statements,
R $\geq$ T, T=M > D
or D < T and R $\geq$ M
Both, (I) and (II) are true.

Incorrect

R $\geq$ T, T = M, M > D
From above all three statements,
R $\geq$ T, T=M > D
or D < T and R $\geq$ M
Both, (I) and (II) are true.
Question 33 of 200

33. Question
1 points
In the following questions the symbols #, %, @, $, and © are used with the following meaning illustrated.

'P # Q' means 'P is not smaller than Q'
'P % Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'
'P @ Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'
'P $ Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'
'P © Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q'
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true. find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true.

Statements F # K, K $ B, B % M
Conclusions I. M @ F
II. B @ F
- If only conclusions I is true
- If only conclusions II is true
- If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true
- If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
- if both conclusions I and II are true
Correct

F $\geq$ K, K < B, B $\leq$ M
F $\geq$ K < B $\leq$ M
M @ F $\Rightarrow$ M > F $\Rightarrow$ False
B @ F $\Rightarrow$ B > F $\Rightarrow$ False
Both (I) and (II) are not true.

Incorrect

F $\geq$ K, K < B, B $\leq$ M
F $\geq$ K < B $\leq$ M
M @ F $\Rightarrow$ M > F $\Rightarrow$ False
B @ F $\Rightarrow$ B > F $\Rightarrow$ False
Both (I) and (II) are not true.
Question 34 of 200

34. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
Which of the following steps will be the least ?
- X
- IX
- VIII
- VII
- None of these
Correct

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.

Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over.
Step I : 86 home turf 39 24 44 roll over.
Step II : 86 home 44 turf 39 24 roll over.
Step III : 86 home 44 over turf 39 24 roll.
Step IV : 86 home 44 over 39 turf 24 roll.
Step V : 86 home 44 over 39 roll turf 24.
Step VI : 86 home 44 over 39 roll 24 turf.
So, step VI is the last step.

Incorrect

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.

Input : home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over.
Step I : 86 home turf 39 24 44 roll over.
Step II : 86 home 44 turf 39 24 roll over.
Step III : 86 home 44 over turf 39 24 roll.
Step IV : 86 home 44 over 39 turf 24 roll.
Step V : 86 home 44 over 39 roll turf 24.
Step VI : 86 home 44 over 39 roll 24 turf.
So, step VI is the last step.
Question 35 of 200

35. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Step III of input : 94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house Which of the following in definitely the input ?
- 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
- 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
- car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
- Cannot be determined
- None of the above
Correct

Input cannot determined exactly.

Incorrect

Input cannot determined exactly.
Question 36 of 200

36. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Step IV of an input is : 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot
Which of the following steps will be the last ?
- VII
- VI
- VIII
- IX
- None of these
Correct

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Step IV : 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot.
Step V : 58 box 47 dew 21 15 town pot.
Step VI : 58 box 47 dew 21 pot 15 town.
Step VI is the last step.

Incorrect

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Step IV : 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot.
Step V : 58 box 47 dew 21 15 town pot.
Step VI : 58 box 47 dew 21 pot 15 town.
Step VI is the last step.
Question 37 of 200

37. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
- VII
- VIII
- VI
- V
- None of the these
Correct

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal.
Step I : 81 show 51 36 new far 46 goal.
Step II : 81 far show 51 36 new 46 goal.
Step III : 81 far 51 show 36 new 46 goal.
Step IV : 81 far 51 goal show 36 new 46.
Step V : 81 far 51 goal 46 show 36 new.
Step VI : 81 far 51 goal 46 new show 36.
Step VII : 81 far 51 goal 46 new 36 show.
So Step VI will be first step from the last.

Incorrect

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Input : show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal.
Step I : 81 show 51 36 new far 46 goal.
Step II : 81 far show 51 36 new 46 goal.
Step III : 81 far 51 show 36 new 46 goal.
Step IV : 81 far 51 goal show 36 new 46.
Step V : 81 far 51 goal 46 show 36 new.
Step VI : 81 far 51 goal 46 new show 36.
Step VII : 81 far 51 goal 46 new 36 show.
So Step VI will be first step from the last.
Question 38 of 200

38. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12
Which of the following will be step IV ?
- 52 buy 43 door 38 task 12 win
- 52 buy 43 door 38 task win 12
- 52 buy 43 door task win 38 12
- There will be no such step
- None of the above
Correct

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12.
State I : 52 buy 43 win task 38 43 door 12.
State II : 52 buy 43 win task 38 door 12.
State III : 52 buy 43 door win task 38 12.
State IV : 52 buy 43 door 38 win task 12.

Incorrect

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.
Input : buy win task 52 38 43 door 12.
State I : 52 buy 43 win task 38 43 door 12.
State II : 52 buy 43 win task 38 door 12.
State III : 52 buy 43 door win task 38 12.
State IV : 52 buy 43 door 38 win task 12.
Question 39 of 200

39. Question
1 points
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Step II of an input is : 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42
How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
- Four
- Five
- Six
- Three
- None of the above
Correct

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.

Step II : 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42.
Step III : 76 ask 42 12 32 begin over join.
Step IV : 76 ask 42 begin 12 32 over join.
Step V : 76 ask 42 begin 32 12 over join.
Step VI : 76 ask 42 begin 32 join 12 over.
So, four more steps are required to fulfil rearrangement.

Incorrect

Numbers follow decreasing order and letters follow alphabetical order.

Step II : 76 ask 12 32 begin over join 42.
Step III : 76 ask 42 12 32 begin over join.
Step IV : 76 ask 42 begin 12 32 over join.
Step V : 76 ask 42 begin 32 12 over join.
Step VI : 76 ask 42 begin 32 join 12 over.
So, four more steps are required to fulfil rearrangement.
Question 40 of 200

40. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

AMQDHI
- 38 @ © $\bigstar$ 9
- 98 @ © $\bigstar$ 9
- 98 @ © $\bigstar$ 3
- 38 @ © $\bigstar$ 3
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 41 of 200

41. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

UMQJPA
- 38 @ 1# 6
- 68 @ 1 # 3
- 68 @ 1 # 6
- 6 @ 81 # c
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 42 of 200

42. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

IREDHP
- % 42 © $\bigstar$ %
- 942 © $\bigstar$ #
- # 42 © $\bigstar$ 9
- 942 © $\bigstar$ 9
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 43 of 200

43. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

RPJWQE
- 2 # 17 @ 4
- 4 # 17 @ 2
- 2 # 17 @ 2
- 4 # 17 @ 4
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 44 of 200

44. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

JDWPUH
- 17 © # 6 $\bigstar$
- 1 © 7 # 6 $\bigstar$
- $\bigstar$ 1 © 7 # 6
- $\bigstar$ © 7 # 61
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 45 of 200

45. Question
1 points
In each question below is given a group of letters followed by a combination of digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3), (4). You have to find out which of the combination correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system and conditions. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters give (5) ie, 'None of these' as your answer.

Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 © 3 $ $\bigstar$ 7
Conditions
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.

FTMQEW
- $ 85 @ 27
- 758 @ 2 $
- $ 58 @ 2 $
- 758 @ 27
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 46 of 200

46. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W, T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

Who is to the immediate left of S ?
- V
- T
- Q
- W
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 47 of 200

47. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W, T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

Who is third to the left of V ?
- T
- S
- W
- R
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 48 of 200

48. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W, T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

In which of the following groups the first person is sitting between the second and the third persons ?
- R P Q
- T W S
- Q P R
- Q V S
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 49 of 200

49. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W, T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

Who is second to the right of Q ?
- R
- W
- T
- S
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 50 of 200

50. Question
1 points
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W, T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

Who is to the immediate right of R ?
- W
- T
- P
- Data inadequate
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 51 of 200

51. Question
1 points
Prime Minister Narendra Modi visited Thimphu on a two-day goodwill visit to Bhutan making it his first foreign visit, recently. Who among the following is the Prime Minister of Bhutan as of now?
- Tshering Tobgay
- Jetsun Pema
- Jigme Khesar Namgyel Wangchuck
- Jigme Thinley
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 52 of 200

52. Question
1 points
According to the ‘ICICI Lombard Tobacco Consumption Habits 2014’ survey, which of the following cities recorded highest cigarette consumption rate in the country?
- Hyderabad
- Lucknow
- Kolkata
- Mumbai
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 53 of 200

53. Question
1 points
Researchers have found the Earth’s largest water reservoir around 643 km underneath mantle rock in
- North America
- South America
- Australia
- Russia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 54 of 200

54. Question
1 points
The govt plans to plant around what number of trees along the entire 1 lakh km National Highways network across the country to employ jobless youth and to protect environment?
- 100 cr
- 200 cr
- 300 cr
- 400 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 55 of 200

55. Question
1 points
The biggest of its kind ever held, the ‘Global Summit to End Sexual Violence in Conflict’ was held in which of the following cities, recently?
- Hague
- London
- Paris
- Frankfurt
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 56 of 200

56. Question
1 points
Which of the following actors has been appointed as UNICEF’s ‘celebrity advocate for child rights,’ recently?
- Vidya Balan
- Madhuri Dixit
- Nandita Das
- Deepika Padukone
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 57 of 200

57. Question
1 points
India beat South Korea 3-0 in its finishing match in the recently concluded men’s Hockey World Cup. India finished at which of the following positions?
- Third
- Fifth
- Seventh
- Ninth
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 58 of 200

58. Question
1 points
As revealed by the UN agency, the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), malnutrition is responsible for about ________ million deaths of children under the age of five every year.
- one
- two
- three
- four
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 59 of 200

59. Question
1 points
The Prime Minister Narendra Modi described the bilateral relations between India and which of the following countries as ‘B2B’ relations. The first ‘B’ stands for Bharat in the term B2B.
- Bangladesh
- Bhutan
- Belarus
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 60 of 200

60. Question
1 points
Mandovi river water has been declared unsafe for swimming and fishing due to presence of high level of coliform bacteria in it. This river is situated in which of the following states?
- Gujarat
- Goa
- Tamil Nadu
- Kanrataka
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 61 of 200

61. Question
1 points
China has signed business deals worth about USD 5 bn during Chinese Premier Li Keqiang’s recent visit to the country? Deals signed covers areas including exports and ship building.
- Greece
- Bulgaria
- Turkey
- Georgia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 62 of 200

62. Question
1 points
The Andean Road System built by the Inca Empire has been granted World Heritage status recently. Which of the following agencies of the United Nations grant World Heritage status to cultural and natural sites in the world?
- WMO
- UNESCO
- WB
- WIPO
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 63 of 200

63. Question
1 points
China has signed business deals worth about USD 5 bn during Chinese Premier Li Keqiang’s recent visit to the country? Deals signed covers areas including exports and ship building.
- Greece
- Bulgaria
- Turkey
- Georgia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 64 of 200

64. Question
1 points
Name the Brazilian President who has been officially endorsed by the governing Workers Party, recently, to run for reelection to be held in Oct?
- Fernando Henrique Cardoso
- Fernando Collor de Mello
- Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva
- Dilma Rousseff
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 65 of 200

65. Question
1 points
Kiren Rijiju led the Indian delegation to 6th Asian Ministerial Conference on Disaster Reduction held in Bangkok recently. He is the Minister of State for ________at present.
- Skill Development, Entrepreneurship, Youth Affairs and Sports
- Culture and Tourism
- Home Affairs
- Planning, Statistics and Programme Implementation
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 66 of 200

66. Question
1 points
Which of the following sites in India has got World Heritage site tag recently?
- Nilgiri Mountain Railway
- Rani-ki-Vav
- Red Fort Complex
- Kaziranga Wild Life Sanctuary
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 67 of 200

67. Question
1 points
According to a UNICEF report, at present only ________of rural Indian population has access to good toilet and sanitation facilities.
- 48 per cent
- 36 per cent
- 24 per cent
- 12 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 68 of 200

68. Question
1 points
India has ratified an Additional Protocol with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) recently. What will be its impact on India’s civil nuclear programme?
- It will clear the decks for large imports of nuclear technology.
- It will cover only those facilities which are monitored by the IAEA.
- India will not be able to set up any new nuclear facility for a period of ten years.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 2)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 69 of 200

69. Question
1 points
Popular film director-producer Ramanarayanan passed away recently. He was associated with ________films.
- Telugu
- Tamil
- Kannada
- Bengali
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 70 of 200

70. Question
1 points
The govt has decided to raise the import duty on sugar from 15 per cent to what per cent recently?
- 20 per cent
- 30 per cent
- 40 per cent
- 50 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 71 of 200

71. Question
1 points
Hindustan Zinc has inked a pact with which of the following state govts to build 30,000 toilets rural toilets for families below poverty line under ‘Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan’?
- Madhya Pradesh
- Rajasthan
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 72 of 200

72. Question
1 points
The World Bank has lowered India’s GDP growth forecast for 2014-15 to what per cent? Earlier it has forecasted of 5.7 per cent GDP growth.
- 4.5 per cent
- 4.8 per cent
- 5.1 per cent
- 5.5 per cent
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 73 of 200

73. Question
1 points
In her first stand-alone visit abroad as the External Affairs Minister, Sushma Swaraj is scheduled to visit which of the following countries on June 25-27?
- Pakistan
- Myanmar
- Maldives
- Sri Lanka
- Bangladesh
Correct

Incorrect
Question 74 of 200

74. Question
1 points
As per the latest data released by Swiss National Bank (SNB), Switzerland’s central banking authority, Indian money in Swiss banks has risen to over
- Rs 14,000 cr
- Rs 19,000 cr
- Rs 22,000 cr
- Rs 34,000 cr
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 75 of 200

75. Question
1 points
Who among the following has been chosen for the prestigious Jnanpith award for 2013? He will be the recipient of the 49th Jnanpith award.
- Vinod Kumar Shukla
- Manglesh Dabral
- Ashok Vajpeyi
- Kedarnath Singh
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 76 of 200

76. Question
1 points
Which of the following pairs won the women’s doubles title at the Tri-Nation squash doubles tournament in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia recently?
- Dipika Pallikal and Joshana Chinappa
- Saumya Karki and Dipika Pallikal
- Joshana Chinappa and Saumya Karki
- Vaidehi Reddy and Saumya Karki
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 77 of 200

77. Question
1 points
The central govt announced to launch a campaign to ensure 100 per cent immunization of children in states hit by encephalitis outbreak. This deadly disease is transmitted by
- Flies
- Cats
- Mosquitoes
- Rats
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 78 of 200

78. Question
1 points
The central govt announced to launch a campaign to ensure 100 per cent immunization of children in states hit by encephalitis outbreak. This deadly disease is transmitted by
- Flies
- Cats
- Mosquitoes
- Rats
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 79 of 200

79. Question
1 points
We often read about Jaipur Foot in newspapers. What is Jaipur Foot?
- A deadly disease that affect camels
- A literary fest organised in Jaipur every year
- A rubber-based prosthetic leg
- A special shoe made exclusively in Jaipur
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 80 of 200

80. Question
1 points
Who among the following has topped the Indian Institutes of Technology-Joint Entrance Examination (IIT-JEE) Advanced
2014?
- Chitraang Murdia
- Srajan Garg
- Aditi
- Mayank Bansal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 81 of 200

81. Question
1 points
Which of the following industrial groups in India has announced to invest Rs 1.8 lakh cr ($30 bn) across businesses over the next three years to break into the Fortune 50 club?
- Tata Group
- RIL
- Bharati Airtel
- Essar Group
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 82 of 200

82. Question
1 points
Name the defending champion of the FIFA World Cup which made a shock early exit from the 2014 World Cup after a disappointing 0-2 loss against Chile?
- Italy
- Spain
- France
- Brazil
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 83 of 200

83. Question
1 points
The NDA govt has decided to bring broad changes in MNREGA scheme. Which of the following are the changes proposed?
- Bringing focus on agriculture with at least Rs 25,000 cr of investment into this sector alone.
- Emphasis on addressing the issues including poor asset quality, absence of adequate technical staff and lack of outcome orientation.
- Strengthening of social audits by identifying, training and equipping rural youth in overseeing implementation of the programme.
- All the above
- Only 1) and 3)
Correct

Incorrect
Question 84 of 200

84. Question
1 points
Sri Lankan parliament has overwhelmingly voted not to allow which of the following recently?
- Voting rights to the minority Tamil community.
- The foreign assistance in building infrastructure in devastated Tamil majority areas.
- The UNHRC team into the country to investigate alleged human rights abuses during the last phase of the civil war against the LTTE.
- Opening up different sectors of country’s economy to the foreign direct investment (FDI).
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 85 of 200

85. Question
1 points
What is India’s ranking in the latest annual ranking of the Global Peace Index?
- 161st
- 154th
- 143rd
- 134th
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 86 of 200

86. Question
1 points
Shekhar Dutt resigned as the governor of which of the following states recently?
- Chhattisgarh
- Kerala
- Uttar Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 87 of 200

87. Question
1 points
According to a paper published recently in the journal Climate Dynamics, the Indus basin is projected to warm with average temperatures set to increase by around ________by 2080.
- 0.5o C
- 1o C
- 2o C
- 3o C
- 4o C
Correct

Incorrect
Question 88 of 200

88. Question
1 points
Which of the following leading online retailers has entered smartphone war with launch of 3D phone ‘Fire’ recently?
- Amazon
- ebay
- Flipcart
- Sanpdeal
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 89 of 200

89. Question
1 points
Who among the following bagged the FIDE World Rapid Chess Championship title in Dubai recently?
- Teimour Radjabov
- Magnus Carlsen
- Aremian Fabiani Caruana
- Vishwanathan Anand
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 90 of 200

90. Question
1 points
Which of the following plants has become the single largest power generating unit in the country?
- Kakrapar
- Tarapur
- Mundra
- Kudankulam
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 91 of 200

91. Question
1 points
The capital markets regulator SEBI cleared a slew of reforms recently. Which of the following NOT among the reforms cleared?
- It has made it mandatory for all listed PSUs to have at least 25 per cent public shareholding within three years.
- It proposed easing of the Offer For Sale (OFS) norms wherein retail investors would be provided with 10 per cent reservation.
- Non-promoters with more than 10 per cent stake in the company would be allowed to tap the OFS route.
- It approved NOT sharing of KYC (Know your Client) information with entities regulated by other financial sector watch dogs
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 92 of 200

92. Question
1 points
Felipe VI took oath as the new king of which of the following countries, recently?
- Norway
- Netherlands
- Spain
- Peru
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 93 of 200

93. Question
1 points
Name the plant scientist who has won the USD 250,000 World Food Prize for his contribution in increasing global wheat production by more than 200 mn tonnes in the years following the Green Revolution?
- Gebisa Ejeta
- Daniel Hillel
- Robert Fraley
- Sanjaya Rajaram
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 94 of 200

94. Question
1 points
The state govt of which of the following states has passed a law to ban dance bars across the state, recently?
- Gujarat
- Uttar Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Goa
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 95 of 200

95. Question
1 points
204. India finished 6th in overall medals tally with 2 gold, 5 silver, 5 bronze in the Asian Junior Athletics Championships held in Chinese Taipei recently. Which of the following countries finished on top?
- China
- Qatar
- Japan
- Malaysia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 96 of 200

96. Question
1 points
The public sector thermal and hydro power generation company NTPC has sought lifting of embargo on Lata Tapovan project work. The project was to come up in which of the following states?
- Himachal Pradesh
- Sikkim
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Jammu & Kashmir
- Uttarakhand
Correct

Incorrect
Question 97 of 200

97. Question
1 points
Juan Manuel Santos has been elected to a second term as President in which of the following countries, recently?
- Venezuela
- Ecuador
- El Salvador
- Colombia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 98 of 200

98. Question
1 points
The Bangalore-based GMR Infrastructure has won the arbitration proceedings initiated against the Govt of which of the following countries after the latter unilaterally cancelled the $500-mn contract given to GMR?
- Sri Lanka
- Maldives
- Myanmar
- Malaysia
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 99 of 200

99. Question
1 points
Which of the following leading Indian software exporters has become the world’s third largest employer of people in the IT sector, with over 3 lakh employees? At the present pace it is all set to become the second largest employer in IT sector this year.
- Infosys
- Wipro
- TCS
- HCL
- Tech Mahindra
Correct

Incorrect
Question 100 of 200

100. Question
1 points
A panel headed by Parthasarathi Shome submitted its recommendations, recently. Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to these recommendations?
- The post of revenue secretary should be abolished as part of needed reforms in the tax administration.
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes and the Central Board of Excise & Customs should be merged to achieve efficiencies.
- A separate budget allocation to ensure time-bound tax refund and a passbook scheme for Tax Deduction at Source.
- Develop PAN as a common business identification number, to be used by other govt departments also.
- The retrospective amendments to tax laws should be adopted to avoid tax losses
Correct

Incorrect
Question 101 of 200

101. Question
1 points
If a very flexible wire is laid out in the sphere of a hairpin with its two ends secured. What sphase will the wire tend to assume if a current is passed through it?
- parabolic
- Straight line
- Circle
- Ellipse
Correct

Direction of current is in the opposite direction so repulsion force will will be present between two wires till the wire become straight.

Incorrect

Direction of current is in the opposite direction so repulsion force will will be present between two wires till the wire become straight.
Question 102 of 200

102. Question
1 points
If the voltage V across 10 Ω resistance is 10 V, what is the voltage E of the voltage source in the circuit shown below?
- - 50 V
- - 10 V
- + 10 V
- + 50
Correct

Apply KCL at node , V = 10

$\frac{V-E}{5}+\frac{V}{10}-5=0$

$-5+\frac{10}{5}+\frac{10}{10}=\frac{E}{5}$

or $\frac{-50+20+10}{10}=\frac{E}{5}=\frac{-20}{10}=\frac{E}{5}$

E = -10 V

Incorrect

Apply KCL at node , V = 10

$\frac{V-E}{5}+\frac{V}{10}-5=0$

$-5+\frac{10}{5}+\frac{10}{10}=\frac{E}{5}$

or $\frac{-50+20+10}{10}=\frac{E}{5}=\frac{-20}{10}=\frac{E}{5}$

E = -10 V
Question 103 of 200

103. Question
1 points
A 3-phase 3-wire supply feeds a star connected load consisting of 3 equal resistors. If one of the resistors is to be removed, then what is the reduction in power as compared to the original power?
- 25% of the original power
- 33.3% of the original power
- 50% of the original power
- 66.6% of the original power
Correct

Power in one resistor removed star connected load

$P_{2}=3\left( \frac{V_{L^{2}}}{2R}\right)$

Power within all three resistor

$P_{2}=3\left( \frac{V_{L}}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^{2}\times \frac{1}{R}=\frac{V_{L}^{2}}{R}$

Reduction of power

$\frac{\frac{V^{2}L}{R}-\frac{V^{2}L}{2R}}{\frac{V^{2}L}{R}}$ = 50%

Incorrect

Power in one resistor removed star connected load

$P_{2}=3\left( \frac{V_{L^{2}}}{2R}\right)$

Power within all three resistor

$P_{2}=3\left( \frac{V_{L}}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^{2}\times \frac{1}{R}=\frac{V_{L}^{2}}{R}$

Reduction of power

$\frac{\frac{V^{2}L}{R}-\frac{V^{2}L}{2R}}{\frac{V^{2}L}{R}}$ = 50%
Question 104 of 200

104. Question
1 points
In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-C(2) amplifier is used because it gives-
- Large voltage gain
- Low output impedance
- Large isolation between the input and the output
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 105 of 200

105. Question
1 points
Diversity reception in used to-
- increase receiver sensitivity
- improve receiver selectivity
- overcome degrading effect of fading
- overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
Correct

Incorrect
Question 106 of 200

106. Question
1 points
Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
- BARITT dived
- IMPATT dived
- Gunn dived
- Step recovery diode
Correct

Incorrect
Question 107 of 200

107. Question
1 points
In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
- zero
- source voltage
- source voltage minus the inductance drop
- average value of the conducting phase voltages
Correct

Incorrect
Question 108 of 200

108. Question
1 points
Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
- A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
- B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
- B may operate as a transistor
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 109 of 200

109. Question
1 points
In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are-
- syne
- video
- sweep
- sound
Correct

Incorrect
Question 110 of 200

110. Question
1 points
The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
- mains transformer
- vertical output stage
- horizontal output stage
- horizontal deflection oscillator
Correct

Incorrect
Question 111 of 200

111. Question
1 points
In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
- 3140 flog.
- carry flog
- sign flog.
- none of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 112 of 200

112. Question
1 points
When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
- 100%
- 150%
- 50%
- 0%
Correct

Incorrect
Question 113 of 200

113. Question
1 points
While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
- each instruction
- after interval of two instruction
- after a subroutine
- at the end of program.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 114 of 200

114. Question
1 points
For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
- Elliptically polarized
- Linearly polarized
- Right circularly polarized
- Left circularly polarized
Correct

Incorrect
Question 115 of 200

115. Question
1 points
A transmission line of characteristic impedance ZO = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length 1 = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 ? j40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
- (30 + j40) ohms
- (30 ? j40) ohms
- (50 + j40) ohms
- (50 ? j40) ohms
Correct

Incorrect
Question 116 of 200

116. Question
1 points
In which error check technique of data communication 2?s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
- Even parity
- odd parity
- check scans
- cyclic redundancy
Correct

Incorrect
Question 117 of 200

117. Question
1 points
Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
- is most important
- is used first
- is fastest
- operators on largest number
Correct

Incorrect
Question 118 of 200

118. Question
1 points
While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are?
- replaced by opens
- replaced by ?shorts?
- treated in parallel with other voltage sources
- converted into equivalent voltage sources
Correct

Incorrect
Question 119 of 200

119. Question
1 points
For the network shown in the figure below, what is the voltage across the current souce I?
- V-RI
- V + RI
- Zero
- Rl - V
Correct

Incorrect
Question 120 of 200

120. Question
1 points
A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
- 10001
- 01110
- 00111
- 11100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 121 of 200

121. Question
1 points
Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements?
- $Z_{11}=Z_{22}$ (4) Z12 = Z21
- $Z_{12}\: Z_{21}=Z_{11}\: Z_{22}$
- $Z_{12}\: Z_{21}=Z_{11}\: Z_{22}$
- $Z_{12}= Z_{21}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 122 of 200

122. Question
1 points
When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is?
- 5 W
- 10 W
- 15 W
- 20 W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 123 of 200

123. Question
1 points
Is the Universal logic gate-
- AND
- OR
- NAND
- X-O
Correct

Incorrect
Question 124 of 200

124. Question
1 points
An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmer has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using than voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter will be
- 111 V
- 100 V
- 90.09 V
- 70.7 V
Correct

Incorrect
Question 125 of 200

125. Question
1 points
For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred-
- T FF
- SR FF
- D FF
- JKFI
Correct

Incorrect
Question 126 of 200

126. Question
1 points
When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is?
- Common base
- Common collector
- Common emitter
- Emitter follower
Correct

Incorrect
Question 127 of 200

127. Question
1 points
For low resistance (from few micro ohms to one ohm) measurement, which bridge is used?
- Wheatstone bridge
- Kelvin bridge
- Gaurded Wheatstone bridge
- Maxwell bridge
Correct

Kelvin Double Bridge: It is one of the best available for the precise measurement of low resistances. It is only a development of the Wheatstone Bridge by which the error due to contact and lead resistance are eliminated

Incorrect

Kelvin Double Bridge: It is one of the best available for the precise measurement of low resistances. It is only a development of the Wheatstone Bridge by which the error due to contact and lead resistance are eliminated
Question 128 of 200

128. Question
1 points
One of the following which is not a transducer in the true sense, is?
- Thermocouple
- Piezoelectric pick up
- Photo-Voltaic cell
- LCD
Correct

Incorrect
Question 129 of 200

129. Question
1 points
They started to ?? people into the theatre only at six –
- enter
- admit
- follow
- accept
Correct

Incorrect
Question 130 of 200

130. Question
1 points
When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1? 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be –
- 2W
- 3W
- 4W
- 1W
Correct

Incorrect
Question 131 of 200

131. Question
1 points
The playback process of the result of
- Magnetic induction
- Mechanical process
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 132 of 200

132. Question
1 points
The tape speed of a recorder can be checked quite accurately using a
- measuring instrument
- by note of its width
- calibrated tape
- All of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 133 of 200

133. Question
1 points
A plane wave travelling in air is incident on a conducting medium. Which one of the following is correct? The magnetic field intensity
- becomes approximately half
- gets approximately doubled
- remains unchanged
- cannot be determined
Correct

µr will be same for both medium.

Incorrect

µr will be same for both medium.
Question 134 of 200

134. Question
1 points
The resistivity of semiconductor lies in between
- $10^{-4}$ to 0.1 Ω
- $10^{-4}$ to 0.2 Ωm
- $10^{-4}$ to 0.1 Ωm
- $10^{-4}$ to 0.5 Ωm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 135 of 200

135. Question
1 points
The hexadecimal equivalent of 1110011011110101 is
- E6F5
- E76F
- E7F5
- E67F
Correct

Incorrect
Question 136 of 200

136. Question
1 points
The dielectric strength for Bakelite is
- $24\times 10^{6}$
- $8\times 10^{6}$
- $3\times 10^{6}$
- 0
Correct

Incorrect
Question 137 of 200

137. Question
1 points
The property of a material to permit electric current to flow through it
- inductance
- capacitance
- conductance
- resistance
Correct

Incorrect
Question 138 of 200

138. Question
1 points
The unit of conductivity is
- ohm/m
- mho/m
- ohm.m
- mho.m
Correct

Incorrect
Question 139 of 200

139. Question
1 points
A waveform shown in the figure below, is fed to a d.c. ammeter. What is the reading shown by the meter?
- Zero
- 50 mA
- 75mA
- 100 mA
Correct

DC ammeter reads current average value i.e, $I_{av}$ present wave form which has average value of 0.5.
So, reading will be 50mA

Incorrect

DC ammeter reads current average value i.e, $I_{av}$ present wave form which has average value of 0.5.
So, reading will be 50mA
Question 140 of 200

140. Question
1 points
The binary medium of communication with a computer through a designed set of instructions specific to each computer
- Assembly language
- High level language
- Low level language
- Machine language
Correct

Incorrect
Question 141 of 200

141. Question
1 points
Which term is generally used for the entire address ranges of the memory chip in a given system?
- Memory map
- Bus
- Addressing mode
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 142 of 200

142. Question
1 points
Earphone is the class of energy transducer capable of receiving
- AC current
- Both AC and DC
- DC current
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 143 of 200

143. Question
1 points
Tysterisis loss cannot occur in
- Magnetic material
- Insulating material
- Non-magnetic material
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 144 of 200

144. Question
1 points
When a dielectric is placed in an electric field, the field strength
- decreases
- becomes infinity
- increases
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 145 of 200

145. Question
1 points
The SI unit of capacitance is
- mho
- farad
- Weber
- ohm
Correct

Incorrect
Question 146 of 200

146. Question
1 points
Resistance of a conductor is proportional to its
- Length
- Width
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 147 of 200

147. Question
1 points
An electric heater is required to heat 13.61 kg. of water from 15°C to boiling point in 40 minutes. If the efficiency of the heater is 80%, then calculate the energy consumed in KWH?
- 1.68 KWH
- 168 KWH
- 16.8 KWH
- None of these
Correct

Mass of water, M = 13.61

Specific heat of Power, S = 1

Rise in temp (t1 - t2) = (100 - 15) = 85°C

Heat required for raising temp of water, H

= $13.61\times 1\times 85$ = 1156.85k cal.

$\therefore$ Heat input = $\frac{1156.85}{0.8}$ = 1446 k cal

Now 1 KWH = 860 K.cal

$\therefore$ Electrical energy consumed E.E = $\frac{1446}{860}=1.68$

Incorrect

Mass of water, M = 13.61

Specific heat of Power, S = 1

Rise in temp (t1 - t2) = (100 - 15) = 85°C

Heat required for raising temp of water, H

= $13.61\times 1\times 85$ = 1156.85k cal.

$\therefore$ Heat input = $\frac{1156.85}{0.8}$ = 1446 k cal

Now 1 KWH = 860 K.cal

$\therefore$ Electrical energy consumed E.E = $\frac{1446}{860}=1.68$
Question 148 of 200

148. Question
1 points
What does 101.111 $\times$ 1000.101 equals in binary?
- 110010.101011
- 11001.1010
- 1100.11001
- 1111.0010
Correct

Incorrect
Question 149 of 200

149. Question
1 points
A diac can be fired
- Only by +Ve half cycle of supply
- Only by -Ve half cycle of supply
- Both (1) and (2)
- without any biasing
Correct

Incorrect
Question 150 of 200

150. Question
1 points
One of the major achievements by thyristor technology is
- Temperature control
- Liquid level control
- Illumination control
- Control of AC & DC motor drives
Correct

Incorrect
Question 151 of 200

151. Question
1 points
The power consumption of LED is
- very low
- low
- very high
- high
Correct

Incorrect
Question 152 of 200

152. Question
1 points
A light operated Relay which uses light rays for controlling various types of electric circuits
- DC Relay
- AC Relay
- Photoelectric Relay
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 153 of 200

153. Question
1 points
The frequency range for super high frequency is
- 3 GHZ - 30 GHZ
- 3 KHZ - 30 KHZ
- 3 HZ - 30 HZ
- 3 KHZ - 30 MHZ
Correct

Incorrect
Question 154 of 200

154. Question
1 points
In control circuit which type of fuse preferred?
- Rewirable type
- Cartridge type
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 155 of 200

155. Question
1 points
Capacitors of 2, 4, 6 µf are connected in series, the total capacitance will be
- 19 µf
- 9 µf
- 1.99 µf
- 99 µf
Correct

Incorrect

When connected in series,

$\frac{1}{C_{s}}=\frac{1}{C_{1}}+\frac{1}{C_{2}}+\frac{1}{C_{3}}$

= $\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{}{6}=\frac{6+3+2}{12}=\frac{11}{12}$

$C_{5}=\frac{11}{12}=1.99\mu f$
Question 156 of 200

156. Question
1 points
For the network shown below, if the current i(t) = $\sqrt{2}(\omega t-30^{\circ})$ then whaty is the value of R ?
- $1\Omega$
- $\sqrt{3}\Omega$
- $3\Omega$
- $3\sqrt{3}\Omega$
Correct

Angle between voltage across R and inductor will 30° as given

$\tan^{-1}\frac{imaginary}{Real}=\tan^{-1}\frac{X_{L}}{R}$

or $\tan 30=\frac{1}{2}R=\frac{1}{\tan 30}=\sqrt{3}$

Incorrect

Angle between voltage across R and inductor will 30° as given

$\tan^{-1}\frac{imaginary}{Real}=\tan^{-1}\frac{X_{L}}{R}$

or $\tan 30=\frac{1}{2}R=\frac{1}{\tan 30}=\sqrt{3}$
Question 157 of 200

157. Question
1 points
The binary addition of 1111 and 1011 is
- 100010
- 1010
- 110010
- 11100
Correct

Incorrect
Question 158 of 200

158. Question
1 points
Internal Resistance of the Lead Acid Battery is
- low
- very low
- high
- infinity
Correct

Incorrect
Question 159 of 200

159. Question
1 points
The wavelength can be measured of a sound source is
- Wavelength = $\frac{Speed\: of\: sound}{frequency}$
- Depends on sound source
- Wavelength = Sound $\times$ Frequency
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 160 of 200

160. Question
1 points
A Triode has plate resistance of 2400Ω and amplification factor of 6 feeds a load of 3000Ω. When the rms value of a sinusoidal voltage applied to the grid is 9v, what is DC power developed in the load.
- (1) 300 W
- 3 W
- 0.3 W
- 30 W
Correct

Rms value of the AC plate

Current I = $\frac{\mu E_{g}}{r_{p}+R_{c}}$

$\mu$ = 6 , $E_{g}$ = 9v , $r_{p}$ = 2400 , $R_{l}$ = 3000

plate current , $i_{p}=\frac{6\times 9}{2400+3000}=\frac{54}{5400}$ = 0.1 A

AC Power in load = $i^{2}_{P}R_{L}=(0.01)^{2}\times 3000=0.3W$

Incorrect

Rms value of the AC plate

Current I = $\frac{\mu E_{g}}{r_{p}+R_{c}}$

$\mu$ = 6 , $E_{g}$ = 9v , $r_{p}$ = 2400 , $R_{l}$ = 3000

plate current , $i_{p}=\frac{6\times 9}{2400+3000}=\frac{54}{5400}$ = 0.1 A

AC Power in load = $i^{2}_{P}R_{L}=(0.01)^{2}\times 3000=0.3W$
Question 161 of 200

161. Question
1 points
The applied input AC power to half-wave Rectifier is 100 watts. The DC power obtained is 60 watts. The ŋ is :
- ŋ = 40%
- ŋ = 30%
- ŋ = 60%
- ŋ = 10%
Correct

Rectifier Effficiency , $\eta =\frac{DC\: Output\: power}{Input\: AC\: Power}=\frac{60}{100}$ = 60%

Incorrect

Rectifier Effficiency , $\eta =\frac{DC\: Output\: power}{Input\: AC\: Power}=\frac{60}{100}$ = 60%
Question 162 of 200

162. Question
1 points
A variable Reluctance type Tachometer has 40 rotor teeth. The counter records 4000 conts per second. The speed is
- 6000 rpm
- 3000 rpm
- 3000 rpm
- 2000 rpm
Correct

Speed = $\frac{Pulse\: per\: second}{Number\: of\: teeth}=\frac{4000}{40}=100\: rps$

Speed in rpm = $100\times 60$ rpm = 6000 rpm

Incorrect

Speed = $\frac{Pulse\: per\: second}{Number\: of\: teeth}=\frac{4000}{40}=100\: rps$

Speed in rpm = $100\times 60$ rpm = 6000 rpm
Question 163 of 200

163. Question
1 points
A microprocessor belongs to the domain of digital electronics and work on the principle of
- Digital system
- Binary numbers
- Both (1) and (2)
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 164 of 200

164. Question
1 points
A projector Lamp has rated voltage of 100 volts and hot resistance of 20Ω. Find the series resistance required to operate the lamp from 150 V supply-
- 10 Ω
- 11 Ω
- 100 Ω
- 20 Ω
Correct

Rated value of voltage = 100 V
Hot resistance of Lamp = 20Ω
Rated value of Lamp current
$\frac{10}{20}$ = 5A
Let ‘R’ be the required series Resistance.
Then the excess voltage of (150 - 100) i.e. 50 volts is to be dropped on R
$\therefore$ R = 50/5 = 10Ω

Incorrect

Rated value of voltage = 100 V
Hot resistance of Lamp = 20Ω
Rated value of Lamp current
$\frac{10}{20}$ = 5A
Let ‘R’ be the required series Resistance.
Then the excess voltage of (150 - 100) i.e. 50 volts is to be dropped on R
$\therefore$ R = 50/5 = 10Ω
Question 165 of 200

165. Question
1 points
A coil having a resistance of 10 Ω and inductance of 31.8 mH is connected to 230V, 50 Hz supply. The circuit current will be
- 16.20 A
- 1.62 A
- 16.26 A
- 62 A
Correct

Resistance of Coil, R = 10 Ω

Inductive Reactance,

$X_{L}=2\times 3.14\times 50\times 31.8\times 10^{-3}$ = 10 Ω

$\therefore$ Coil impedance,

Z = $\sqrt{(10)^{2}+(10)^{2}}=14.14\Omega$

circuit Current I = $\frac{V}{Z}=\frac{230}{14.14}$ = 16.26 A

Incorrect

Resistance of Coil, R = 10 Ω

Inductive Reactance,

$X_{L}=2\times 3.14\times 50\times 31.8\times 10^{-3}$ = 10 Ω

$\therefore$ Coil impedance,

Z = $\sqrt{(10)^{2}+(10)^{2}}=14.14\Omega$

circuit Current I = $\frac{V}{Z}=\frac{230}{14.14}$ = 16.26 A
Question 166 of 200

166. Question
1 points
No-load test on a 3-phase induction motor was conducted at different supply voltages and a plot of input power versus voltage was drawn. This curve was extrapolated to intersect the y-axis. This intersection point yields
- Core loss
- Stator copper loss
- Stray load loss
- Friction & windage loss
Correct

Power input at no-load ( $P_{0}$ ) provided losses only as the shaft output is zero. These losses comprise. $P_{1}$ (Iron/Core loss) and $P_{Wf}$ (windage and friction loss).
As the voltage is reduced below the rated value, the core loss decreases as the square of voltage.
Since the slip does not increase significantly the windage and friction loss remains almost constant.
The plot of $P_{0}$ versus V is extrapolated to V = 0 which gives $P_{Wf}$ as $P_{1}$ = 0 at zero voltage.

Incorrect

Power input at no-load ( $P_{0}$ ) provided losses only as the shaft output is zero. These losses comprise. $P_{1}$ (Iron/Core loss) and $P_{Wf}$ (windage and friction loss).
As the voltage is reduced below the rated value, the core loss decreases as the square of voltage.
Since the slip does not increase significantly the windage and friction loss remains almost constant.
The plot of $P_{0}$ versus V is extrapolated to V = 0 which gives $P_{Wf}$ as $P_{1}$ = 0 at zero voltage.
Question 167 of 200

167. Question
1 points
Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission line to
- reduce transmission line losses
- increase mechanical strength of the line
- reduce corona
- reduce sag
Correct

By bonding of conductors, the self GMD of the conductors is increased.
Corona loss ∞ $(V-V_{0})^{2}$
$V_{0}$ is approximately directly proportional to the size of the conductor, hence larger the size of the conductor larger will be the critical disruptive voltage and smaller will be the factor $(V-V_{0})^{2}$ and hence, smaller will be the corona loss.

Incorrect

By bonding of conductors, the self GMD of the conductors is increased.
Corona loss ∞ $(V-V_{0})^{2}$
$V_{0}$ is approximately directly proportional to the size of the conductor, hence larger the size of the conductor larger will be the critical disruptive voltage and smaller will be the factor $(V-V_{0})^{2}$ and hence, smaller will be the corona loss.
Question 168 of 200

168. Question
1 points
A power system consist of 300 buses out of which 20 buses are generator bus, 25 buses are ones with reactive power support and 15 buses are the ones with fixed shunt capacitors. All the other buses are load buses. It is proposed to perform a load flow analysis in the system using Newton-Raphson method. The size of the Newton-Raphson Jacobi-an matrix is
- 553 $\times$ 553
- 540 $\times$ 540
- 555 $\times$ 555
- 554 $\times$ 554
Correct

Total number of buses = N = 300

Number of generator bus = $n_{1}$ = 20

Number of buses with reactive power support = $n_{2}$ = 25

Number of buses with fixed shunt capacitors = $n_{3}$ = 15

Number of voltage controlled bus = n

= $n_{2}+n_{3}$ = 40

x = Number of PQ buses

= 2N - ( $n_{1}$ + n)

= 2 $\times$ 300 - (20 + 40) = 540

Size of N-R Jacobian matrix

= xxx = 540 $\times$ 540

Incorrect

Total number of buses = N = 300

Number of generator bus = $n_{1}$ = 20

Number of buses with reactive power support = $n_{2}$ = 25

Number of buses with fixed shunt capacitors = $n_{3}$ = 15

Number of voltage controlled bus = n

= $n_{2}+n_{3}$ = 40

x = Number of PQ buses

= 2N - ( $n_{1}$ + n)

= 2 $\times$ 300 - (20 + 40) = 540

Size of N-R Jacobian matrix

= xxx = 540 $\times$ 540
Question 169 of 200

169. Question
1 points
The effect of stray magnetic fields on the actuating torque of a portable instrument is maximum when the operating field of the instrument and the stray fields are
- perpendicular
- parallel
- inclined at 60°
- inclined at 30°
Correct

Due to stray magnetic field, torque is also produced which can affect the torque produced due to operating field. If both stray magnetic and operating field are parallel, torques due to both field become additive.

Incorrect

Due to stray magnetic field, torque is also produced which can affect the torque produced due to operating field. If both stray magnetic and operating field are parallel, torques due to both field become additive.
Question 170 of 200

170. Question
1 points
The variation of drain current with gate-to-source voltage (ID-VGS characteristic) of a MOSFET is shown in figure.
The MOSFET is
- an n-channel depletion mode device
- an n-channel enhancement mode device
- an p-channel depletion mode device
- an p-channel enhancement mode device
Correct

This is the characteristics of p-channel depletion mode device.

Incorrect

This is the characteristics of p-channel depletion mode device.
Question 171 of 200

171. Question
1 points
In the circuit of figure, assume that the transistor has $h_{fe}$ = 99 and $V_{BE}$ = 0.7V. The value of collector current Ic of the transistor is approximately
- [3.3/3.3]mA
- [3.3/(3.3 + 3.3)]mA
- [3.3/.33]mA
- [3.3/(33 + 3.3)]mA
Correct

Using KVL in Base-emitter Loop

4 - 33 $\times I_{b}$ - .7 - 33 $\times 100I_{b}=0(I_{c}=\beta I_{b})$

$\therefore I_{b}=\frac{4-.7}{(33+330)}$

$\therefore I_{c}=\frac{3.3\times 100}{(33+330)}=\frac{3.3}{.33+3.3}$

Incorrect

Using KVL in Base-emitter Loop

4 - 33 $\times I_{b}$ - .7 - 33 $\times 100I_{b}=0(I_{c}=\beta I_{b})$

$\therefore I_{b}=\frac{4-.7}{(33+330)}$

$\therefore I_{c}=\frac{3.3\times 100}{(33+330)}=\frac{3.3}{.33+3.3}$
Question 172 of 200

172. Question
1 points
A point charge of + 1 nC is placed in a space with permittivity of $8.85\times 10^{-12}$ F/m as shown in figure. The potential difference VPQ between two points P and Q at distances of 40 mm and 20 mm respectively from the point charge is
- 0.22 kV
- -225 V
- -2.24 kV
- 15 V
Correct

$V_{P}-V_{Q}=\frac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}(OP)}-\frac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}(OQ)}$

= $9\times 10^{9}\left [\frac{10^{-9}}{40\times 10^{-3}}-\frac{10^{-9}}{20\times 10^{-3}}\right]$ = -225 Volts

Incorrect

$V_{P}-V_{Q}=\frac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}(OP)}-\frac{q}{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}(OQ)}$

= $9\times 10^{9}\left [\frac{10^{-9}}{40\times 10^{-3}}-\frac{10^{-9}}{20\times 10^{-3}}\right]$ = -225 Volts
Question 173 of 200

173. Question
1 points
A fully controlled natural commutated 3-phase bridge rectifier is operating with a firing angle α = 30°. The peak to peak voltage ripple expressed as a ratio of the peak output dc voltage at the output of the converter bridge is
Equations
- 0.5
- $\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
- $\left(1-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)$
- $\sqrt{3}-1$
Correct

Average output voltage of the converter

$V_{0}=\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos \alpha$

$V_{0}$ at $\alpha =30^{\circ}$

$V_{0}=\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos 30^{\circ}$

Peak output dc voltage

= $\frac{V_{0}}{(V_{0})P}=\frac{\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos30^{\circ}}{\frac{3Vml}{\pi}}$

= $\cos 30^{\circ}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$

Incorrect

Average output voltage of the converter

$V_{0}=\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos \alpha$

$V_{0}$ at $\alpha =30^{\circ}$

$V_{0}=\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos 30^{\circ}$

Peak output dc voltage

= $\frac{V_{0}}{(V_{0})P}=\frac{\frac{3Vml}{\pi}\cos30^{\circ}}{\frac{3Vml}{\pi}}$

= $\cos 30^{\circ}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
Question 174 of 200

174. Question
1 points
In the matrix equation Px = q, which of the following is a necessary condition for the existence of at least one solution for the unknown vector x.
- Augmented matrix [Pq] must have the same rank as matrix P
- Vector q must have only non-zero elements
- Matrix P must be singular
- Matrix P must be square
Correct

Incorrect
Question 175 of 200

175. Question
1 points
The relation between electric intensity E, voltage applied V and the distance d between the plates of a parallel plate condenser is
- $E=\frac{v}{d}$
- $E=v\times d$
- $E=\frac{v}{d^{2}}$
- $E=v\times d^{2}$
Correct

$E=\frac{V}{d}$

Incorrect

$E=\frac{V}{d}$
Question 176 of 200

176. Question
1 points
A optical frequencies, the major contribution to the total polarization comes from
- space charge polarization
- orientation polarization
- ionic polarization
- electronic polarization
Correct

At optical frequencies the heavy ions cannot follow rapid field variations due to that and ionic as well as orientation polarization vanishes. But the losses at optical frequencies, are associated with the electrons i.e. electronic Polarization

Incorrect

At optical frequencies the heavy ions cannot follow rapid field variations due to that and ionic as well as orientation polarization vanishes. But the losses at optical frequencies, are associated with the electrons i.e. electronic Polarization
Question 177 of 200

177. Question
1 points
Figure 1 shows a network in which the diode is an ideal one

The terminal v-I characteristics of the network is given by
- img
- img
- img
- img
Correct

i = $\frac{V-5}{2}$

The terminal v-I characteristic is V = 2i + 5 if V < 5, then i = 0. Its mean diode is open.

Incorrect

i = $\frac{V-5}{2}$

The terminal v-I characteristic is V = 2i + 5 if V < 5, then i = 0. Its mean diode is open.
Question 178 of 200

178. Question
1 points
The bonding forces in compound semiconductors, such as GaAs, arise from
- Ionic bonding
- Metallic bonding
- Covalent bonding
- Combination of ionic and covalent bonding
Correct

Covalent bonding

Incorrect

Covalent bonding
Question 179 of 200

179. Question
1 points
Resolution of a 12 bit Analog to Digital converter in per cent is
- 0.01220
- 0.02441
- 0.04882
- 0.09760
Correct

% Resolution

$\frac{1}{(2^{n}-1)}\times 100=\frac{1}{2^{12}-1}\times 100$

= $\frac{1}{4k-1}\times 100=0.0244$

Incorrect

% Resolution

$\frac{1}{(2^{n}-1)}\times 100=\frac{1}{2^{12}-1}\times 100$

= $\frac{1}{4k-1}\times 100=0.0244$
Question 180 of 200

180. Question
1 points
Let the transfer function of network be H(f) = $|H(f)|e^{i\theta}(f)=2e^{-j4\pi f}$
If a signal x (t) is applied to such a network, the output y (t) is given by
- 2x (t)
- x (t -2)
- 2x (t -2)
- 2x (t - 4p)
Correct

Using Time shift Laplace operation similar for Fourier transform.

x(t) $\rightarrow$ F(s)

x(t - 2) $\rightarrow$ F(s) $e^{-2s}$

Then $y(\omega)=2e^{-j4\pi}$

y(t) = 2x (t - 2)

Incorrect

Using Time shift Laplace operation similar for Fourier transform.

x(t) $\rightarrow$ F(s)

x(t - 2) $\rightarrow$ F(s) $e^{-2s}$

Then $y(\omega)=2e^{-j4\pi}$

y(t) = 2x (t - 2)
Question 181 of 200

181. Question
1 points
The most suitable camera tube for industrial applications is
- Iconoscope
- Image orthicon
- Standard vidicon
- None of these
Correct

Incorrect
Question 182 of 200

182. Question
1 points
If $e_{1}$ = A sin ωt and $e_{2}$ = B sin (ωt - φ), then
- $e_{1}$ lags $e_{2}$ by θ
- $e_{2}$ lags $e_{1}$ by θ
- $e_{2}$ leads $e_{2}$ by θ
- $e_{1}$ is in phase with $e_{2}$
Correct

Incorrect
Question 183 of 200

183. Question
1 points
For DBS TV transmission the downlink frequency is about
- 14 GHz
- 10 GHz
- 6 GHz
- 12 GHz
Correct

Incorrect
Question 184 of 200

184. Question
1 points
The power factor of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
- low at light loads only
- low at heavy loads only
- low at light and heavy loads both
- low at rated load only
Correct

Incorrect
Question 185 of 200

185. Question
1 points
What does the function f(t) plotted in the below figure represent?
- Unit step function
- Unit impulse function
- Unit Ramp function
- Unit parabolic function
Correct

f(t) = 1 at t = 0 = 0 at t ≠ 0

=> unit impulse function

Incorrect

f(t) = 1 at t = 0 = 0 at t ≠ 0

=> unit impulse function
Question 186 of 200

186. Question
1 points
According to KVL, the algebraic sum of all IR drops and e.m.f.s in any closed loop of a network is always
- zero
- positive
- negative
- determined by battery e.m.f.s
Correct

Incorrect
Question 187 of 200

187. Question
1 points
The maximum range of transmitter depends on
- Its frequency
- Its power
- Both frequency and power
- None of the above
Correct

Incorrect
Question 188 of 200

188. Question
1 points
A capacitor consists of two
- insulation separated by a dielectric
- conductors separated by an insulator
- ceramic plates and one mica disc
- silver-coated insulators
Correct

Incorrect
Question 189 of 200

189. Question
1 points
Statement
An auto-transformer is more efficient in transferring energy from primary to secondary circuit.
Reason
Because it does so both inductively and inductively.
- statement is false, reason is correct and relevant
- statement is correct, reason is correct but irrelevant
- both statement and reason are correct and are connected to each other as cause and effect
- both statement and reason are false
Correct

Incorrect
Question 190 of 200

190. Question
1 points
Two materials having temperature coefficient of 0.004 and 0.0004 respectively are joined in series. The overall temperature coefficient is approximately:
- 0.08
- 0.04
- 0.001
- 0.0001
Correct

In a series circuit overall temperature coefficient will be the average of two.

$\alpha _{1}=\frac{\alpha _{1}+\alpha _{2}}{2}=\frac{0.004+0.0004}{2}$ = 0.0022

Nearest average value of two given coefficient is 0.001.

Incorrect

In a series circuit overall temperature coefficient will be the average of two.

$\alpha _{1}=\frac{\alpha _{1}+\alpha _{2}}{2}=\frac{0.004+0.0004}{2}$ = 0.0022

Nearest average value of two given coefficient is 0.001.
Question 191 of 200

191. Question
1 points
The capacitance of a capacitor is NOT influenced by
- plate thickness
- plate area
- plate separation
- nature of the dielectric
Correct

Incorrect
Question 192 of 200

192. Question
1 points
The slight curvature at the lower end of the O.C.C. of a self-excited d.c. generator is due to
- residual pole flux
- high armature speed
- magnetic inertia
- high field circuit resistance.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 193 of 200

193. Question
1 points
At relatively light loads, transformer efficiency is low because
- secondary output is low
- transformer losses are high
- fixed loss is high in proportion to the output
- Cu loss is small.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 194 of 200

194. Question
1 points
No-load test on a transformer is carried out to determine
- copper loss
- magnetizing current
- magnetizing current and no-load loss
- efficiency of the transformer
Correct

Incorrect
Question 195 of 200

195. Question
1 points
The primary and secondary induced e.m.fs. E1 and E2 in a two-winding transformer are
- equal in magnitude
- antiphase with each other
- in-phase with each other
- determined by load on transformer secondary.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 196 of 200

196. Question
1 points
Irrespective of the supply frequency, the torque developed by a SCIM is the same whenever is the same.
- supply voltage
- external load
- rotor resistance
- slip speed.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 197 of 200

197. Question
1 points
Of the following statements concerning parallel operation of transformers, the one which is not correct is
- transformers must have equal voltage ratings
- transformers must have same ratio of transformation
- transformers must be operated at the same frequency
- transformers must have equal kVA ratings.
Correct

Incorrect
Question 198 of 200

198. Question
1 points
A transformer having 1000 primary turns is connected to a 250-V a.c. supply. For a secondary voltage of 400 V, the number of secondary turns should be
- 1600
- 250
- 400
- 1250
Correct

Incorrect
Question 199 of 200

199. Question
1 points
Infrared Astronomical Satellite (IRAS) was launched in
- 1983
- 1973
- 1960
- 1970
Correct

Incorrect
Question 200 of 200

200. Question
1 points
Load saturation characteristic of a d.c. generator given relation between
- V and Ia
- E and Ia
- E0 and If
- V and If
Correct

Incorrect

Please comment on Junior Engineer Electrical Practice Test - 1 - Time 2 Hours

32 Comments

Bhanu on October 8, 2023 at 3:07 pm

Super
Reply
sachithra d.r on December 22, 2021 at 5:01 am

it is very helpful to prepare junior engineer (electrica)examination
Reply
shalender singh on November 16, 2020 at 3:54 pm

Haryana je electrical exam previous year paper solw
Reply
shalinee tiwari on September 15, 2020 at 4:31 pm

good set of question
Reply
somya ranjan behera on January 20, 2020 at 6:36 am

somyarnjnbehera963@gmail.com
Reply
ajay kumar on September 25, 2019 at 12:42 pm

question label is good
Reply
sumitha on July 26, 2019 at 6:19 am

good m`ock test
Reply
sumitha on July 26, 2019 at 6:18 am

good
Reply
Zain Malik on June 5, 2019 at 6:53 pm

please explain how this code was made
Reply
- Ashok on July 20, 2020 at 2:45 pm
  
  Kumbaraashok025@gmail.com
  Reply
Pramod on May 23, 2019 at 5:52 pm

Hii
Reply
Deepak Runiwal on May 19, 2019 at 2:43 pm

Electrical junior engineering information mecation
Reply
sup on March 3, 2019 at 12:10 pm

some questions are wrong
Reply
AMIT GHOSH on January 27, 2019 at 2:54 am

Good
Reply
Kamlesh on November 10, 2018 at 10:57 am

Hindi me hai kya
Reply
Vikas singh on October 21, 2018 at 6:47 am

Bahraich
Reply
SAUREB ALAM on October 20, 2018 at 5:01 am

it is very helpful to prepare junior engineer (electrica)examination
Reply
- md alam on January 27, 2019 at 1:27 pm
  
  electical engg
  Reply
Shubham kumar maurya on September 27, 2018 at 5:59 am

Good question were included sir
Reply
- Chavan Pragati on August 26, 2019 at 8:19 am
  
  Not a je paper it will be higher
  Reply
  - admin on August 30, 2019 at 4:57 pm
    
    Hello,
    The mock test is created from previous year JE papers.
    Reply
JAGDISH MAHTO on February 13, 2018 at 11:28 pm

Good mock test
Reply
JAGDISH MAHTO on February 13, 2018 at 10:49 pm

How it is possible sir
Reply
anirban dey on January 6, 2018 at 8:30 am

this is strictly ece based mock test..good for ece student not for ee
Reply
Shubham huse on November 27, 2017 at 11:31 am

Very nice sirji
Reply
v.monika on November 21, 2017 at 6:46 am

good questions
Reply
Hari Mohan panika on November 2, 2017 at 4:28 pm

Nice set of questions
Reply
Sayali on October 17, 2017 at 6:29 am

Good questions
Reply
Sunita yadav on September 15, 2017 at 7:04 am

Sunita
Reply
swati jaiswal on September 12, 2017 at 8:31 pm

swatijaiswalsrrt@gmail.com
Reply
A k Singh on August 5, 2017 at 2:38 pm

How it's possible sir
Reply
S B on July 18, 2017 at 9:10 am

Good set of question
Reply

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