Mock Test 2
Quizsummary
0 of 200 questions completed
Questions:
 1
 2
 3
 4
 5
 6
 7
 8
 9
 10
 11
 12
 13
 14
 15
 16
 17
 18
 19
 20
 21
 22
 23
 24
 25
 26
 27
 28
 29
 30
 31
 32
 33
 34
 35
 36
 37
 38
 39
 40
 41
 42
 43
 44
 45
 46
 47
 48
 49
 50
 51
 52
 53
 54
 55
 56
 57
 58
 59
 60
 61
 62
 63
 64
 65
 66
 67
 68
 69
 70
 71
 72
 73
 74
 75
 76
 77
 78
 79
 80
 81
 82
 83
 84
 85
 86
 87
 88
 89
 90
 91
 92
 93
 94
 95
 96
 97
 98
 99
 100
 101
 102
 103
 104
 105
 106
 107
 108
 109
 110
 111
 112
 113
 114
 115
 116
 117
 118
 119
 120
 121
 122
 123
 124
 125
 126
 127
 128
 129
 130
 131
 132
 133
 134
 135
 136
 137
 138
 139
 140
 141
 142
 143
 144
 145
 146
 147
 148
 149
 150
 151
 152
 153
 154
 155
 156
 157
 158
 159
 160
 161
 162
 163
 164
 165
 166
 167
 168
 169
 170
 171
 172
 173
 174
 175
 176
 177
 178
 179
 180
 181
 182
 183
 184
 185
 186
 187
 188
 189
 190
 191
 192
 193
 194
 195
 196
 197
 198
 199
 200
Information
Time Limit  2 Hours
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 200 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score 

Your score 

Categories
 Not categorized 0%
 1
 2
 3
 4
 5
 6
 7
 8
 9
 10
 11
 12
 13
 14
 15
 16
 17
 18
 19
 20
 21
 22
 23
 24
 25
 26
 27
 28
 29
 30
 31
 32
 33
 34
 35
 36
 37
 38
 39
 40
 41
 42
 43
 44
 45
 46
 47
 48
 49
 50
 51
 52
 53
 54
 55
 56
 57
 58
 59
 60
 61
 62
 63
 64
 65
 66
 67
 68
 69
 70
 71
 72
 73
 74
 75
 76
 77
 78
 79
 80
 81
 82
 83
 84
 85
 86
 87
 88
 89
 90
 91
 92
 93
 94
 95
 96
 97
 98
 99
 100
 101
 102
 103
 104
 105
 106
 107
 108
 109
 110
 111
 112
 113
 114
 115
 116
 117
 118
 119
 120
 121
 122
 123
 124
 125
 126
 127
 128
 129
 130
 131
 132
 133
 134
 135
 136
 137
 138
 139
 140
 141
 142
 143
 144
 145
 146
 147
 148
 149
 150
 151
 152
 153
 154
 155
 156
 157
 158
 159
 160
 161
 162
 163
 164
 165
 166
 167
 168
 169
 170
 171
 172
 173
 174
 175
 176
 177
 178
 179
 180
 181
 182
 183
 184
 185
 186
 187
 188
 189
 190
 191
 192
 193
 194
 195
 196
 197
 198
 199
 200
 Answered
 Review

Question 1 of 200
1. Question
1 points(Q.Nos. 14) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input Line of words and numbers arrangement them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)
Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the Following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
Input 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92
(All the numbers are two digits numbers)Which step number is the following output?
9227 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feetbest inkCorrect
Incorrect

Question 2 of 200
2. Question
1 pointsWhich word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?
Correct
68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V.Incorrect
68 51 32 27 14 84 why vain 92 best Feet ink not sit
Hence, 'best' would be at 5th position from the right in step V. 
Question 3 of 200
3. Question
1 pointsHow many elements (words or numbers) are there between'feet' and '32' as they appear in the last step of the output?
Correct
(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'.Incorrect
(last step) 92 84 68 51 32 27 14 best feet ink not sit vain why
Hence, three elements (best, 14, 27) are between 'feet' and '32'. 
Question 4 of 200
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following represents the position of 'why' in the fourth step?
Correct
51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV.Incorrect
51 32 27 14 84 why sit vain 68 92 best feet ink not.
Hence, 'why' is sixth from the left in step IV. 
Question 5 of 200
5. Question
1 points(Q.Nos. 511) Study the following
information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the center but not necessarily in the same order.
B sits second to left of H's husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B.
D's daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H's .
Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H's brother D sits to the immediate left of H's mother' Only one person sits between H's mother and E.
Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of EWhat is position of A with respect to his motherinlaw?
Correct
A's motherinlaw is B and A is second to the right of B.Incorrect
A's motherinlaw is B and A is second to the right of B. 
Question 6 of 200
6. Question
1 pointsWho among the following is D's daughter?
Correct
D's daughter is E,
Incorrect
D's daughter is E,

Question 7 of 200
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
Correct
A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.
Incorrect
A's grandchild is C and A is immediate right of C.

Question 8 of 200
8. Question
1 pointsHow many people sit between G and her uncle?
Correct
G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anticlockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.
Incorrect
G's uncle is D and three peoples (either clockwise or anticlockwise) are sitting between G and her uncle.

Question 9 of 200
9. Question
1 pointsFour of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Correct
Except C all others are women
Incorrect
Except C all others are women

Question 10 of 200
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
Correct
B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.
Incorrect
B is the mother of H which is true with respect to the given sitting arrangement.

Question 11 of 200
11. Question
1 pointsWho sits to the immediate left of C?
Correct
F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.
Incorrect
F's grandmother sits to the immediate left of C.

Question 12 of 200
12. Question
1 points(Q. Nos. 1218) In each group of questions below are two/three Statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements
Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
Conclusions
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.Correct
Incorrect
According to the statements, Venndiagram is
Conclusions l. No question is a test. (7)
II. Some tests are definitely not exams. (3)
Hence, only conclusion II follows from the given statements. 
Question 13 of 200
13. Question
1 pointsStatements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.Correct
Incorrect
According to the statements, Venn diagram is
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers (7)
II. No heat is force. (3) 
Question 14 of 200
14. Question
1 pointsStatements
All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.Correct
Incorrect
Conclusions. I No energy is heat. (3)
ll. Some forces being heat is a possibility. (7)Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Question 15 of 200
15. Question
1 pointsStatements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.Correct
Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)
II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)
Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Incorrect
Conclusion I. No coin is a plastic (3)
II. All the plastic being metals is a possibility (7)
Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Question 16 of 200
16. Question
1 pointsStatements
No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plasticsCorrect
Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)
II. All notes are plastic. (7)
Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.
Incorrect
Conclusions: I. No metal is plastic. (3)
II. All notes are plastic. (7)
Hence, only conclusion I follows from the given statements.

Question 17 of 200
17. Question
1 pointsStatements
Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.Correct
According to the statements, Venndiagram is
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7)Incorrect
According to the statements, Venndiagram is
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures. (3)
II. No symbol ls a Picture. (7) 
Question 18 of 200
18. Question
1 pointsStatements
All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
Conclusions
I. All vacancies are occupation.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.Correct
According to the statements, Venndiagram is
Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.
Incorrect
According to the statements, Venndiagram is
Conclusion
I. All vacancies are occupations. (7)
ll. All occupations being vacancies is a Possibility Y. (7)Hence, none conclusion follows from the given statements.

Question 19 of 200
19. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
Which of the following could possibly be C's score?
Correct
Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.
Incorrect
Six friends marks descending order ( >) are as follows.
B > D > F > C > E > A
Given, third highest marks = 81 and E's marks : 62
Therefore, C's score marks between 62 and 81Hence, C's Possible marks : 70.

Question 20 of 200
20. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 21 of 200
21. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F's marks. Which of the following can be D's score?
Correct
B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89Incorrect
B scored highest marks.
Therefore, B's marks = F's marks + 13
= 81 + 13
=94
D scored second highest marks.
Therefore , D scored marks between 81 and 94
Hence, D's Possible marks = 89 
Question 22 of 200
22. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Which of the following is true regarding A?
Correct
The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.
Incorrect
The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbor of A.

Question 23 of 200
23. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 24 of 200
24. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
Correct
The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.
Incorrect
The person from Syndicate Bank and D at extreme ends of the rows.

Question 25 of 200
25. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra?
Correct
The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,
Incorrect
The person from Indian Bank'is faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra,

Question 26 of 200
26. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
P is related to Dena Bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who among the following is D related to, following the same pattern?
Correct
D is related to Indian Bank.
Incorrect
D is related to Indian Bank.

Question 27 of 200
27. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Correct
Except Q, all are on the ends of rows
Incorrect
Except Q, all are on the ends of rows

Question 28 of 200
28. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
Who among the following is from Syndicate Bank?
Correct
P is from Syndicate Bank.
Incorrect
P is from Syndicate Bank.

Question 29 of 200
29. Question
1 pointsStudy the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing South' In row2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbor of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbor of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
 The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
 Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
 B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
C is from which of the following banks?
Correct
C is from Canara Bank.
Incorrect
C is from Canara Bank.

Question 30 of 200
30. Question
1 pointsEach of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six store building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the top most floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live, P lives on an even numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the top most floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R's floor.Correct
From statement I,II and III people floor P6, T5, R4, S3, Q2, V.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor,Incorrect
From statement I,II and III people floor P6, T5, R4, S3, Q2, V.1
Hence, P lives on the top most floor, 
Question 31 of 200
31. Question
1 pointsEach of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is 'ANSWER' the word formed after performing the following operations using these six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.Correct
Incorrect

Question 32 of 200
32. Question
1 pointsEach of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point D is to the South of point C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is 9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of point F.Correct
Incorrect

Question 33 of 200
33. Question
1 pointsEach of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
How is'one'coded in the code language?
I. 'one of its kind'is coded as 'zo pi ko fe' and 'in kind and cash' is coded as 'ga to ru ko'
II. 'its point for origin' is coded as 'ba le fe mi' and 'make a point clear' is coded as 'yu si mi de'
III. 'make money and cash'is coded as 'to mi ru hy' and 'money of various kind'is coded as'qu ko zo hy'Correct
From statement I, II and III
kind > Ko, Point > mi, money > hy,
of> zo, and > ru, cash > to, its > fe
of its kind > zo fe ko
Hence, one > piIncorrect
From statement I, II and III
kind > Ko, Point > mi, money > hy,
of> zo, and > ru, cash > to, its > fe
of its kind > zo fe ko
Hence, one > pi 
Question 34 of 200
34. Question
1 pointsEach of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and Give Answer.
Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the center?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the center. C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbor of A. C sits to immediate right of D'
III. D is an immediate neighbor of both A and C' B sits to the immediate left of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.Correct
Incorrect

Question 35 of 200
35. Question
1 pointsRead the following information carefully and answer the question which follows.
Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organicfarming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).Correct
A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).
Incorrect
A farm's area for organic and chemical farming is different is the correct assumption for the given statement (information).

Question 36 of 200
36. Question
1 pointsRead the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)Correct
The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'
Incorrect
The reason behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is that 'there is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is higher than that of small grocery stores'

Question 37 of 200
37. Question
1 points(Q. Nos. 3740) These questions ate based on the information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E and F as given below.
A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local Grocery stores than from the super markets.
B. As the super markets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
C. Super markets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local Grocery stores is much Lower as compared to the super markets.
F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.Which of the statements numbered A, B, C, D, E and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)Correct
The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets.
Incorrect
The assumption behind the small brands are tying up with super markets such as Big Bazaar is statement (D) and E which describes that 'super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands' and 'Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at local grocery stores is much lower as compares to the super markets'

Question 38 of 200
38. Question
1 pointsWhich of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
Correct
Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.
Incorrect
Statement E represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand.

Question 39 of 200
39. Question
1 pointsWhich of the statements A, B,C,D and E mentioned above represents a. reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands?
Correct
Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.
Incorrect
Statement D represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to super markets by the smaller brands.

Question 40 of 200
40. Question
1 pointsWhich of the statements numbered A, B, C, E and F mentioned above would Prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct?
Correct
Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .
Incorrect
Both statement B and E would prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct .

Question 41 of 200
41. Question
1 pointsIn each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 42 of 200
42. Question
1 pointsIn each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 43 of 200
43. Question
1 pointsIn each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 44 of 200
44. Question
1 pointsIn each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 45 of 200
45. Question
1 pointsIn each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 46 of 200
46. Question
1 pointsIn each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series /sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 47 of 200
47. Question
1 pointsIn each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series / sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 48 of 200
48. Question
1 pointsIn each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 49 of 200
49. Question
1 pointsIn each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 50 of 200
50. Question
1 pointsIn each of the following questions below, the figures follow a series sequence. One and only one of the five figures does not fit in the series sequence. The number of that figure is your answer.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 51 of 200
51. Question
1 pointsLaurent Fabius, who visited New Delhi, recently, is the present foreign minister of which of the following countries?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 52 of 200
52. Question
1 pointsAs per a recent UNESCO report, though India has managed to reduce the number of outofschool children in the past decade, yet more than ________ children were out of school in 2011.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 53 of 200
53. Question
1 pointsThe world’s largest multination naval exercise, 24th Rim of the Pacific (RIMPAC) exercise, was conducted with 22 nations and six observer nations recently. Which of the following nations was NOT a participant in this year’s exercise?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 54 of 200
54. Question
1 pointsInternet giant Google announced its ‘Android One’ programmed recently. This programme is aimed at which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 55 of 200
55. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following airlines in India is all set to become the first Indian airline to officially join the Star Alliance, a global airline alliance?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 56 of 200
56. Question
1 pointsIn which of the following states the govt has launched ‘Amma Pharmacy’ to sell medicines at a fair price recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 57 of 200
57. Question
1 pointsThe ban on the import of milk and milk products from which of the following countries has been extended for one more year till Jun 2015 recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 58 of 200
58. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following two PSUs have been conferred the coveted Navratna status, recently, which would give these
firms more financial and operational autonomy?Correct
Incorrect

Question 59 of 200
59. Question
1 pointsThe World Population Day is observed every year on
Correct
Incorrect

Question 60 of 200
60. Question
1 pointsGeneral Bikram Singh visited which of the following countries, recently? This is the first official visit to this country by an Indian Army Chief in nine years.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 61 of 200
61. Question
1 pointsDelhi is now the world’s second most populous city with 25 million inhabitants. Which of the following cities is the most populous in the world as of now?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 62 of 200
62. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Indian airlines form formally joined the global airline group Star Alliance on 12 Jul? It has become the only Indian airline which is now member the 27 airlines club operating in 192 countries.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 63 of 200
63. Question
1 pointsAn Indianorigin judge Justice VK Rajah has been appointed as the new attorney general of which of the following countries recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 64 of 200
64. Question
1 pointsGrand old lady Zohra Sehgal died at the age of 102 years recently. A Padma Shri and Padma Vibhshan awardee, she was a noted
Correct
Incorrect

Question 65 of 200
65. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT a new scheme announced in the Union Budget for 201415 recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 66 of 200
66. Question
1 pointsThe Union Budget for 201415 proposes to develop 100 new cities and a fund of ________ has been set aside for the purpose.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 67 of 200
67. Question
1 pointsThe Union Budget for 201415 proposes REITS for infrastructure projects to reduce pressure on banking system. REITS stands for
Correct
Incorrect

Question 68 of 200
68. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is correct with respect to proposals in the Union Budget for FY15 regarding women?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 69 of 200
69. Question
1 pointsWhat is the budget allocation for the rural housing scheme in the Union Budget for FY15?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 70 of 200
70. Question
1 pointsAs per the proposal made in the Union Budget for FY15, the Center would restructure BRGF, currently implemented in 272 backward districts in 27 States. What is the expanded form of BRGF?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 71 of 200
71. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries has emerged as the world’s largest consumer of antibiotics according to a new study ‘Global Trends in Antibiotic Consumption, 20002010’ released recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 72 of 200
72. Question
1 pointsPakistan has declared the ancestral home of which of the following Indian personalities situated in the country as a national heritage recently?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 73 of 200
73. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following teams secured the third place in the recently concluded FIFA World Cup held in Brazil?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 74 of 200
74. Question
1 pointsWe read about a term DONER in newspapers. This term is related to which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 75 of 200
75. Question
1 pointsThe govt has proposed an integrated programme for the conservation of river Ganga with an outlay of over ________in the Union Budget for FY15. The Conservation Mission will be called ‘Namami Gange’.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 76 of 200
76. Question
1 pointsthe shortage of judges in the judiciary. Who among the following is the current chairman of the Law Commission?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 77 of 200
77. Question
1 pointsThe “India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2013” shows that there is an increase of 5871 sq km in the forest cover of the country compared to the previous report. The ISFR is released at what intervals?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 78 of 200
78. Question
1 pointsIndia launched the indigenously built ship ‘Sindhu Sadhna’ recently. Fitted with latest worldclass equipments, this is a
Correct
Incorrect

Question 79 of 200
79. Question
1 pointsThe govt has allocated what amount for the Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) to create over 27 lakh jobs in the 12th Plan period ending Mar 2017?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 80 of 200
80. Question
1 pointsThe govt announced appointment of new governors for various states recently. Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly in this regard?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 81 of 200
81. Question
1 pointsWhen was the first Lionel trains manufactured?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 82 of 200
82. Question
1 pointsWho invented the Seed Drill?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 83 of 200
83. Question
1 pointsFor what is Charles Babbage (17921871) remembered?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 84 of 200
84. Question
1 pointsWhat invention is credited to the Russian born American inventor Vladimir Kosma Zworykin?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 85 of 200
85. Question
1 pointsWhen was the Raggedy Ann doll patented?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 86 of 200
86. Question
1 pointsWho is the only U.S. President to invent and patent something?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 87 of 200
87. Question
1 pointsThis AfricanAmerican woman physical therapist worked with soldiers disabled in World War II. She invented a device that helped the disabled to eat by delivering food through a tube to a mouthpiece.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 88 of 200
88. Question
1 pointsWho developed the idea of Crop Rotation?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 89 of 200
89. Question
1 pointsWho invented the Spinning Jenny?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 90 of 200
90. Question
1 pointsWhen was the game Frisbee invented?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 91 of 200
91. Question
1 pointsFor what does the world owe Almon Strowger a debt of gratitude?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 92 of 200
92. Question
1 pointsIndia is often known as the land of rivers, with most of its major cities based on the banks of rivers. Through which of these Indian cities does the river Mithi flow?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 93 of 200
93. Question
1 pointsIndia has a long coastline which is serviced by more than 150 ports both major or minor. Which of these ports lies on the eastern sea coast of India?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 94 of 200
94. Question
1 pointsWhich Indian city, famous for its lagoons, is known as the Venice of the East?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 95 of 200
95. Question
1 pointsHow did Humayun, the second Mughal Emperor of India die?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 96 of 200
96. Question
1 pointsLakshadweep, the name of these picturesque islands off India's South Western coast comes from the Sanskrit word for which number?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 97 of 200
97. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rivers does NOT meet the Bay of Bengal?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 98 of 200
98. Question
1 pointsRamayana, the great Indian epic, which every Indian child grows up learning about, is also the world's longest poem, with over 3 million verses. Which city is described as the birthplace of the main protagonist, Lord Rama?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 99 of 200
99. Question
1 pointsIndia's rich geographical variety encompasses almost all geographical features like mountains, lakes, waterfalls, geysers, plateaus etc. Which of the following feature is not found in India?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 100 of 200
100. Question
1 pointsThe Himalayan mountain range, stands guard to India's northern borders. One of the mountains of the Himalayan range is the highest mountain of India  which one?
Correct
Incorrect

Question 101 of 200
101. Question
1 pointsThe sum of first 20 odd natural numbers is equal to
Correct
The sum of last 20 odd natural number = = 400
Incorrect
The sum of last 20 odd natural number = = 400

Question 102 of 200
102. Question
1 pointsIf 3 4 a 6 8 is to be divisible by g, then the value of missing digit, a should be
Correct
Incorrect
If 34a68 is to be divisible by 9, then the sum of a1l digits must be divisible by 9.
3 + 4 + a + 6 + 8 is multiply by 9.
21 + a is multiple of 9
Hence, the possible value of a is 6.

Question 103 of 200
103. Question
1 pointsis equal to
Correct
[By using ]
= 9
Incorrect
[By using ]
= 9

Question 104 of 200
104. Question
1 points1632 ÷ 4 ÷ 2 = ?
Correct
The given expression is 1632 ÷ 4 ÷ 2 = ?
⇒ = 204.
Incorrect
The given expression is 1632 ÷ 4 ÷ 2 = ?
⇒ = 204.

Question 105 of 200
105. Question
1 pointsTwo cars A and B arerunning in the same direction. Car A had already covered a distance of 60 km when car B started running. The cars meet each other in 3 h after car B started running. What was the speed of car A?
Correct
Let the speed of cars A and B be x km/h and y km/h, respectively.
Thus, we cannot determine the speed of car A.
Incorrect
Let the speed of cars A and B be x km/h and y km/h, respectively.
Thus, we cannot determine the speed of car A.

Question 106 of 200
106. Question
1 pointsA train runnin g at the speed of 72 km/h crosses a 260 m long platform in 23 s" What is the length of the train in metre?
Correct
Let the length of train be x m.
.'.x= 200 m
Incorrect
Let the length of train be x m.
.'.x= 200 m

Question 107 of 200
107. Question
1 pointsA 300 m long train crosses a platform in 39 s while it crosses a slgnal pole in 18 s. What is the length of the platform?
Correct
Let the length of platform be x m.
Incorrect
Let the length of platform be x m.

Question 108 of 200
108. Question
1 pointsA boat running downstream covers a distance of 16 km in 2 h while covering the same distance upstream it trake 4 h. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
Correct
.'. The Speed of boat in still water=
= 6 km/h.
Incorrect
.'. The Speed of boat in still water=
= 6 km/h.

Question 109 of 200
109. Question
1 pointsA and B can do a work in 15 days, B and C in 20 days, C and A in 12 days. In how many days can they complete it, if they work together?
Correct
(A + B)'s one day work =
(B + C)'s one day work =
(C + A)'s one day work =
.'. (A + B +C)'s one day work =
=
Incorrect
(A + B)'s one day work =
(B + C)'s one day work =
(C + A)'s one day work =
.'. (A + B +C)'s one day work =
=

Question 110 of 200
110. Question
1 pointsHow many six letter word.s can be formed with the letters of the word POLICY such that the vowels occur only at even places?
Correct
Incorrect
Number of ways in which 3 even places can be filled with two vowels = ^{3}P_{2 }=6
Number of four vacant places can be filled with four consonants =^{4}P_{4 }=24.
.'. Total number of words in which vowels occupy even places =

Question 111 of 200
111. Question
1 pointsHow many five digit numbers can be formed with digits 1,2,3, 4 and 5 which are divisible by 2?
Correct
Since, the numbers are divisible by 2, therefore at unit's place only 2 or 4 will be taken
[su_table]
Place Ten thousand Thousands Hundreds Tens Units Number of digits, which can be taken 1 2 3 4 5 [/su_table]
.'. The number of five digits number=Incorrect
Since, the numbers are divisible by 2, therefore at unit's place only 2 or 4 will be taken
[su_table]
Place Ten thousand Thousands Hundreds Tens Units Number of digits, which can be taken 1 2 3 4 5 [/su_table]
.'. The number of five digits number= 
Question 112 of 200
112. Question
1 pointsA tearn of 16 cricketers is selected for the ODI series. It consists of 10 old players and 6 new players. As a principle, it was decided that the team playing any of the matches must contain 8 players. The number of ways the team can be selected, is
Correct
The number of ways= ^{10}C_{8 } ^{6}C_{3}
=
= = 900
Incorrect
The number of ways= ^{10}C_{8 } ^{6}C_{3}
=
= = 900

Question 113 of 200
113. Question
1 pointsHow many five digit numbers greater than 6000 can be formed with the digits 0, 3, 6, 7 and I repetition not being allowed?
Correct
Since, the numbers are thousand's place only 6, greater than 6000, therefore at 7 or 9 will be taken.
[su_table]Place Ten thousand Thousands Hundreds Tens Units Number of digits, which can be taken 4 (0 will not taken at this place) 3 3 2 1 [/su_table]
.'. The number of five digit numbers
=Incorrect
Since, the numbers are thousand's place only 6, greater than 6000, therefore at 7 or 9 will be taken.
[su_table]Place Ten thousand Thousands Hundreds Tens Units Number of digits, which can be taken 4 (0 will not taken at this place) 3 3 2 1 [/su_table]
.'. The number of five digit numbers
= 
Question 114 of 200
114. Question
1 pointsThe age of father 10 years ago was thrice the age of his son. Ten years hence, the father’s age will be twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:
Correct
Let the ages of father and son 10 years ago be 3x and x years respectively.
Then, (3x + 10) + 10 = 2[(x + 10) + 10]
3x + 20 = 2x + 40
x = 20.
Required ratio = (3x + 10) : (x + 10) = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3.
Incorrect
Let the ages of father and son 10 years ago be 3x and x years respectively.
Then, (3x + 10) + 10 = 2[(x + 10) + 10]
3x + 20 = 2x + 40
x = 20.
Required ratio = (3x + 10) : (x + 10) = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3.

Question 115 of 200
115. Question
1 pointsTen years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages. [Bank P.O. 1991]
Correct
Let As age 10 years ago = x.
Then, Bs age 10 years ago = 2x.
hence x = 5. Total of their present ages =(x + 10 + 2x + 10)
(3x + 20) = 35 years.Incorrect
Let As age 10 years ago = x.
Then, Bs age 10 years ago = 2x.
hence x = 5. Total of their present ages =(x + 10 + 2x + 10)
(3x + 20) = 35 years. 
Question 116 of 200
116. Question
1 pointsIf 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Gulzar and the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Anup is obtained. If Anup is 2 years younger to Mahesh whose age is 5 years, then what is the present age of Gulzar . [Bank P.O. 1993]
Correct
Let Gulzar age are x years
Anups age =(5  2)years = 3 years.
Then
x  6 = 54
x = 60
Incorrect
Let Gulzar age are x years
Anups age =(5  2)years = 3 years.
Then
x  6 = 54
x = 60

Question 117 of 200
117. Question
1 pointsSushil was thrice as old as Sneha 6 years back. Sushil will be times as old as Sneha 6 years hence. How old is Sneha today?
Correct
Let Sneha age 6 years back = x.
Then, Sushil age 6 years back = 3x.
(x + 6 + 6) = (3x + 6 + 6)
Hence 5(x + 12) = 3(3x + 12) so x = 6.
Sneha today = (x + 6) years = 6 + 6 = 12 years.
Incorrect
Let Sneha age 6 years back = x.
Then, Sushil age 6 years back = 3x.
(x + 6 + 6) = (3x + 6 + 6)
Hence 5(x + 12) = 3(3x + 12) so x = 6.
Sneha today = (x + 6) years = 6 + 6 = 12 years.

Question 118 of 200
118. Question
1 pointsThe ratio of the ages of Meena and Meera is 4 : 3. The sum of their ages is 28 years. The ratio Of their ages after 8 years will be . [Central Excise ]
Correct
Let Meena age = 4x and Meera age = 3x.
Then, 4x + 3x = 28
7x = 28
x = 4
Meena age = 16 years and Meera age = 12 years.
Ratio of their ages after 8 years = (16 + 8): (12 + 8) = 24 : 20 = 6 : 5.
Incorrect
Let Meena age = 4x and Meera age = 3x.
Then, 4x + 3x = 28
7x = 28
x = 4
Meena age = 16 years and Meera age = 12 years.
Ratio of their ages after 8 years = (16 + 8): (12 + 8) = 24 : 20 = 6 : 5.

Question 119 of 200
119. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
 13x – 1 = 0
Correct
In any quadratic equation of the form
+ bx + c = 0
The discriminant D =
Discriminant D =
=
= 361
Incorrect
In any quadratic equation of the form
+ bx + c = 0
The discriminant D =
Discriminant D =
=
= 361

Question 120 of 200
120. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
 2x + c – Q + y = 0
Correct
In the given equation, b = 2, a = p, and c =c –q + y
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 4 – 4p (c – q + y)
= 4[1 – c + q – y]
Incorrect
In the given equation, b = 2, a = p, and c =c –q + y
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 4 – 4p (c – q + y)
= 4[1 – c + q – y]

Question 121 of 200
121. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
= 0
Correct
In the given equation
= 0,
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 48 – 12d
Incorrect
In the given equation
= 0,
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 48 – 12d

Question 122 of 200
122. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
= 0
Correct
In the given equation = 0
A = 5,
Hence discriminant D
=
=
=
Incorrect
In the given equation = 0
A = 5,
Hence discriminant D
=
=
=

Question 123 of 200
123. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
7x – 25 + = 0 x ≠ 0
Correct
The given equation is
= 0
= 0
Now, a =7, b = 25, c = 10
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 625 – 280
= 345
Incorrect
The given equation is
= 0
= 0
Now, a =7, b = 25, c = 10
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 625 – 280
= 345

Question 124 of 200
124. Question
1 pointsEvaluate the discriminant of
x + = 2.5
Correct
The given equation is
Now, a = 2, b = 5, c = 2.
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 9
Incorrect
The given equation is
Now, a = 2, b = 5, c = 2.
Hence, discriminant D
=
=
= 9

Question 125 of 200
125. Question
1 pointsFind the middle term(s) of
Correct
In the expression of the given expression there are 11 terms and hence. i.e., 6^{th} term is the middle term.
Incorrect
In the expression of the given expression there are 11 terms and hence. i.e., 6^{th} term is the middle term.

Question 126 of 200
126. Question
1 pointsFind the middle term(s) of
Correct
In the expansion of given expression there are 10 terms. Hence, i.e., 5th and 6th terms are the middle terms.
=
i.e.,
Incorrect
In the expansion of given expression there are 10 terms. Hence, i.e., 5th and 6th terms are the middle terms.
=
i.e.,

Question 127 of 200
127. Question
1 pointsWhich term of expansion is independent of x?
Correct
Comparing the given expression with
We have n = 15, p = 3, q = 2.
And
Incorrect
Comparing the given expression with
We have n = 15, p = 3, q = 2.
And

Question 128 of 200
128. Question
1 pointsThe coefficients of 5th, 6th, and 7th terms of the expansion are in AP. Find n.
Correct
Incorrect

Question 129 of 200
129. Question
1 pointsIf X denotes the number of sixes in four consecutive throws of a dice then P(X = 4) is equal to